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Number of questions: 100
Number of questions to pass: 80
Time allowed: 120 mins
Status: Live
The TSS Academy is available to IBM Business Partners and IBM employees that
are, or plan to be part of the IBM Technology Support Services Business.
This test is designed to validate the understanding of the modules presented in
the TSS Academy (www.tssacademy.biz)
This test consist of one section that covers all knowledge areas presented in
the TSS Academy.
To prepare for the test follow the link to the TSS Academy: www.tssacademy.biz
It is highly recommended to complete all mandatory modules and earn the TSS
Academy Graduate Badge prior to this test. (https://www.youracclaim.com/org/ibm/badge/tss-academy-graduate)
The TSS Academy is available to IBM Business Partners and IBM employees that
are, or plan to be part of the IBM Technology Support Services Business.
To prepare for the test follow the link to the TSS Academy: www.tssacademy.biz
In the TSS Academy you will be able to learn everything you need to pass this
Test. There is an option "Preparing for a certificate" where you can practice a
full test.
The content of this exam will be updated on May 22, 2020. Please download the
skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
Candidates for this exam are Developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps
model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a
Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that
include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations,
data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations.
Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in
Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration,
integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints.
Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps
model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on
data.
Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript,
TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services,
ASP.NET, and Power BI.
Skills measured The content of this exam will be updated on May 22, 2020. Please download
the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
Create a technical design (10-15%)
Configure Common Data Service (CDS) (15-20%)
Create and configure Power Apps (10-15%)
Configure business process automation (10-15%)
Extend the user experience (15-20%)
Extend the platform (15-20%)
Develop integrations (10-15%)
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are developers who work with Microsoft
Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and
extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a
solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system
integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom
visualizations. Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps
model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of
customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as
boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of
DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates
must expose, store, and report on data. Candidates should have development
experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft
Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI. Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to
illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Create a Technical Design (10-15%) Validate requirements and design technical architecture
design and validate technical architecture
design authentication and authorization strategy
determine whether requirements can be met with out-of-the-box functionality
determine when to use Logic Apps versus Microsoft Flow
determine when to use serverless computing vs. plug-ins
determine when to build a virtual entity data source provider vs. when to use
connectors Create a data model
design a data model Configure Common Data Service (CDS) (
15-20%) Configure security to support development troubleshoot operational security issues
create or update security roles and field-level security profiles Implement
entities and fields
configure entities
configure fields
configure relationships Create and maintain solutions
configure solutions
import and export solutions
manage solution dependencies Create and Configure Power Apps
(10-15%) Create model-driven apps configure a model-driven app
configure forms
configure views
configure visualizations Create Canvas Apps
configure a Canvas App
develop complex expressions Configure business process automation
(10-15%) Configure Microsoft Flow configure a Flow
configure actions to use CDS connectors
develop complex expressions Implement processes
create and configure business process flows
create and configure business rules
Extend the user experience
(15-20%) Apply business logic using client scripting configure supporting components
create JavaScript or Typescript code
register an event handler
use the Web API from client scripting
Create a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) component
initialize a new PCF component
configure a PCF component manifest
implement the component interfaces
package, deploy, and consume the component
use Web API device capabilities and other component framework services
Create a command button function
create the command function
design command button triggers, rules, and actions
edit the command bar using the Ribbon Workbench
modify the form JavaScript library dependencies
Extend the platform (15-20%)
Create a plug-in
debug and troubleshoot a plug-in
develop a plug-in
use the Organization Service
optimize plug-ins for performance
register custom assemblies by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
create custom actions
Configure custom connectors for Power Apps and Flow
create a definition for the API
configure API security
use policy templates
Use platform APIs
interact with data and processes using the Web API
optimize for performance, concurrency, transactions, and batching
perform discovery using the Web API
perform entity metadata operations with the Web API
use OAuth with the platform APIs
Develop Integrations (10-15%) Publish and consume events
publish an event by using the API
publish an event by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
register a webhook
create an Azure event listener application
Implement data synchronization configure and use entity change tracking
configure the data export service to integrate with Azure SQL Database
create and use alternate keys
The exam guide below shows the changes that will be implemented on May 22, 2020.
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are developers who work with Microsoft
Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and
extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a
solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system
integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom
visualizations. Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps
model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of
customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as
boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of
DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates
must expose, store, and report on data. Candidates should have development
experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft
Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI.
Skills Measured NOTE:
The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to
illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do
NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when
they are GA (General Availability). Create a Technical Design
(10-15%) Validate requirements and design technical architecture
design and validate technical architecture
design authentication and authorization strategy
determine whether requirements can be met with out-of-the-box functionality
determine when to use Logic Apps versus Microsoft FlowPower Automate flows
determine when to use serverless computing vs. plug-ins
determine when to build a virtual entity data source provider vs. when to use
connectors Create a data model
design a data model Configure Common Data Service (CDS)
(15-20%) Configure security to support development troubleshoot operational security issues
create or update security roles and field-level security profiles Implement
entities and fields
configure entities
configure fields
configure relationships Create and maintain solutions
configure solutions
import and export solutions
manage solution dependencies Create and Configure Power Apps
(10-15%) Create model-driven apps configure a model-driven app
configure forms
configure views
configure visualizations Create Canvas Apps
configure a Canvas App
develop complex expressions Configure business process automation
(10-15%) Configure Microsoft FlowPower Automate
configure a Flow
configure actions to use CDS Common Data Service connectors
develop complex expressions Implement processes
create and configure business process flows
create and configure business rules
Extend the user experience (15-20%)
Apply business logic using client scripting
configure supporting components
create JavaScript or Typescript code
register an event handler
use the Web API from client scripting
Create a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) component
initialize a new PCF component
configure a PCF component manifest
implement the component interfaces
package, deploy, and consume the component
use Web API device capabilities and other component framework services
Create a command button function
create the command function
design command button triggers, rules, and actions
edit the command bar using the Ribbon Workbench
modify the form JavaScript library dependencies
Extend the platform (15-20%) Create a plug-in
debug and troubleshoot a plug-in
develop a plug-in
use the Organization Service global Discovery Service endpoint
optimize plug-ins for performance
register custom assemblies by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
create custom actions
Configure custom connectors for Power Apps and Flow
create a definition for the API
configure API security
use policy templates
Use platform APIs
interact with data and processes using the Web API
optimize for performance, concurrency, transactions, and batching
perform discovery using the Web API
perform entity metadata operations with the Web API
use OAuth with the platform APIs
Develop Integrations (10-15%) Publish and consume events
publish an event by using the API
publish an event by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
register a webhook
create an Azure event listener application
Implement data synchronization
configure and use entity change tracking
configure the data export service to integrate with Azure SQL Database
create and use alternate keys
QUESTION 1 You need to replace the bicycle inspection forms.
Which two solutions should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a canvas app that guides the technician through the inspection
B. a logic app that guides the technician through the inspection
C. a flow that maps inspection data to Dynamics 365 for Field Service
D. a model-driven app based on customer service entities
Correct Answer: C,D
QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
A Common Data Service (CDS) environment has two custom entities named Building
code and Work item.
Building code has a code date custom field and Work item has an elapsed time
custom field. Construction
workers use a consolidated custom form with data from both entities to fill.in
their daily work items.
A JavaScript library is used with these custom entities and fields to apply
complex logic.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript library continues to function as
originally designed if other developers
expand the environment.
Solution: In form properties of the consolidated form, add the JavaScript
library in the events tab and add the
two custom fields to the dependent fields section of the non-event dependencies
tab.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
A Common Data Service (CDS) environment has two custom entities named Building
code and Work item.
Building code has a code date custom field and Work item has an elapsed time
custom field. Construction
workers use a consolidated custom form with data from both entities to fill.in
their daily work items.
A JavaScript library is used with these custom entities and fields to apply
complex logic.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript library continues to function as
originally designed if other developers
expand the environment.
Solution: In the JavaScript library, add Building code with Code date and Work
item with Elapsed time in the dependencies tab.
Does the solution meet the goal?
The Azure IoT Developer is responsible for the implementation and the coding
required to create and maintain the cloud and edge portion of an IoT solution.
In addition to configuring and maintaining the devices by using cloud services,
the IoT Developer also sets up the physical devices. The IoT Developer is
responsible for maintaining the devices throughout the life cycle.
The IoT Developer implements designs for IoT solutions, including device
topology, connectivity, debugging and security. The IoT Developer deploys
compute/containers and configures device networking. The IoT Developer
implements designs for solutions to manage data pipelines, including monitoring
and data transformation as it relates to IoT. The IoT Developer works with data
engineers and other stakeholders to ensure successful business integration.
IoT Developers should have a good understanding of how to implement the Azure
services that form an IoT solution, including data storage options, data
analysis, data processing, and platform-as-a-service options. IoT Developers
must be able to recognize Azure IoT service configuration settings within the
code portion of an IoT solution and perform specific IoT coding tasks in at
least one Azure-supported language, including C#, Node, C, or Python.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty
Related exams: none
Exam AZ-220: Microsoft Azure IoT Developer
Languages: English
This exam measures your ability to implement the IoT solution infrastructure;
provision and manage devices; implement solutions on Azure IoT Edge devices;
process and manage data; monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions; and
implement security.
Skills measured Implement the IoT solution infrastructure (15-20%)
Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement Edge (15-20%)
Process and manage data (15-20%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)
Implement security (15-20%)
create an IoT Hub register a device
configure a device twin
configure IoT Hub tier and scaling
Build device messaging and communication build messaging solutions by using SDKs (device and service)
implement device-to-cloud communication
implement cloud-to-device communication
configure file upload for devices
Configure physical IoT devices recommend an appropriate protocol based on device specifications
configure device networking, topology, and connectivity
Provision and manage devices (20-25%) Implement the Device Provisioning Service (DPS)
create a Device Provisioning Service
create a new enrollment in DPS
manage allocation policies by using Azure Functions
link an IoT Hub to the DPS
Manage the device lifecycle provision a device by using DPS
deprovision an autoenrollment
decommission (disenroll) a device
Manage IoT devices by using IoT Hub manage devices list in the IoT Hub device registry
modify device twin tags and properties
trigger an action on a set of devices by using IoT Hub Jobs and Direct Methods
set up Automatic Device Management of IoT devices at scale
Build a solution by using IoT Central define a device type in Azure IoT Central
configure rules and actions in Azure IoT Central
define the operator view
add and manage devices from IoT Central
monitor devices
Implement Edge (15-20%)
Set up and deploy an IoT Edge device create a device identity in IoT Hub
deploy a single IoT device to IoT Edge
create a deployment for IoT Edge devices
install container runtime on IoT devices
define and implement deployment manifest
update security daemon and runtime
Develop modules create and configure an Edge module
deploy a module to an Edge device
publish an IoT Edge module to an Azure Container Registry
Configure an IoT Edge device select and deploy an appropriate gateway pattern
implement module-to-module communication
implement and configure offline support
Process and manage data (15-20%)
Configure routing in Azure IoT Hub implement message enrichment in IoT Hub
configure routing of IoT Device messages to endpoints
define and test routing queries
integrate with Event Grid
Configure stream processing create ASA for data and stream processing of IoT data
process and filter IoT data by using Azure Functions
configure Stream Analytics outputs
Configure an IoT solution for Time Series Insights (TSI) implement solutions to handle telemetry and time-stamped data
create an Azure Time Series Insights (TSI) environment
connect the IoT Hub and the Time Series Insights (TSI)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)
Configure health monitoring configure metrics in IoT Hub
set up diagnostics logs for Azure IoT Hub
query and visualize tracing by using Azure monitor
Troubleshoot device communication establish maintenance communication
verify device telemetry is received by IoT Hub
validate device twin properties, tags and direct methods
troubleshoot device disconnects and connects
Perform end-to-end solution testing and diagnostics
estimate the capacity required for each service in the solution
conduct performance and stress testing
set up device D2C message tracing by using Azure Distributed Tracing
Implement security (15-20%)
Implement device authentication in the IoT Hub choose an appropriate form of authentication
manage the X.509 certificates for a device
manage the symmetric keys for a device
Implement device security by using DPS configure different attestation mechanisms with DPS
generate and manage x.509 certificates for IoT Devices
configure enrollment with x.509 certificates
generate a TPM endorsements key for a device
configure enrollment with symmetric keys
Implement Azure Security Center (ASC) for IoT enable ASC for IoT in Azure IoT Hub
create security modules
configure custom alerts
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device
Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT
hub.
Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment
group, and you disable device
entries in the identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are
provisioned.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device
Provisioning Service instance, and
1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT
hub.
Solution: You delete the enrollment group from the Device Provisioning Service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device
Provisioning Service instance, and
1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT
hub.
Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access
policy of the IoT devices.
Does the solution meet the goal?
Oracle Database Administration II | 1Z0-083 An Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional has proven
theoretical understanding of and the practical skills required to configure and
manage Oracle Databases up to and including Oracle 19c. Passing this 2nd exam in
a 2 exam path proves your skills in: installation, upgrades, patching, SQL
programming skills, database and network administration and backup and recovery.
This person also demonstrates fluency with some advanced skills such as
multi-tenant, SQL performance monitoring and problem determination.
Audience: Production Database Administrators (DBAs)
Development DBAs
DB Architects
DB designers and analysts.
Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-083
Exam Price: Rs.22,584 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 85
Passing Score: 57%
Validated Against:
Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional
Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional (Upgrade from
10g,11g, 12c, 12cR2 OCP)
Review Exam Topics Creating CDBs and Regular PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant
Architecture Ed 1
Configure and create a CDB
Create a new PDB from the CDB seed
Explore the structure of PDBs
Backup and Duplicate - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed
1 Perform Backup and Recover CDBs and PDBs
Duplicate an active PDB
Duplicate a Database
Manage Application PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture
Ed 1 Explain the purpose of application root and application seed
Define and create application PDBs
Install, upgrade and Patch applications
Create and administer Application PDBS
Clone PDBs and Application containers
Plug and unplug operations with PDBs and application containers
Comparing Local Undo Mode and Shared Undo Mode
Recovery and Flashback - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture
Ed 1
Restore and Recovering Databases with RMAN
Perform CDB and PDB flashback
Backup Strategies and Terminology - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery
Workshop Perform Full and Incremental Backups and Recoveries
Compress and Encrypt RMAN Backups
Use a media manager
Create multi-section backups of very large files
Create duplexed backup sets
Create archival backups
Backup of recovery files
Backup non database files
Back up ASM meta data
Restore and Recovery Concepts - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Employ the best Oracle Database recovery technology for your failure situation
Describe and use Recovery technology for Crash, Complete, and Point-in-time
recovry
Using Flashback Technologies - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop Configure your Database to support Flashback
Perform flashback operations
Duplicating a Database - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop Duplicate Databases
Diagnosing Failures - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop Detect and repair database and database block corruption
Diagnosing Database Issues
Transporting Data - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Transport Data
Install Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database - Oracle Database: Deploy,
Patch and Upgrade Workshop Install Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone server
Install Oracle Database software
Patching Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database - Oracle Database: Deploy,
Patch and Upgrade Workshop Patch Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database
Upgrading to Oracle Grid Infrastructure - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and
Upgrade Workshop Upgrade Oracle Grid Infrastructure
Oracle Database 18c: New Features - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and
Upgrade Workshop Image and RPM based Database Installation
Oracle Restart - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Configure and use Oracle Restart to manage components
Install Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone server - Oracle Database:
Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop Rapid Home Provisioning
Using Availability Enhancements - Oracle Database 19c: New Features for
Administrators Use an RMAN recovery catalog
Use Flashback Database
Monitoring and Tuning Database Performance - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Managing Memory Components
Understanding The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
Understanding The Advisory Framework
Monitoring Wait Events, Sessions, and Services
Managing Metric Thresholds and Alerts
Understanding and Using The Performance Tuning Methodology
Performing Performance Planning
Understanding The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Manage CDBs and PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed
1
Manage PDB service names and connections
Manage startup, shutdown and availability of CDBs and PDBs
Change the different modes and settings of PDBs
Evaluate the impact of parameter value changes
Performance management in CDBs and PDBs
Control CDB and PDB resource usage with the Oracle Resource Manager
Upgrading and Transporting CDBs and Regular PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing
Multitenant Architecture Ed 1 Upgrade an Oracle Database
Transport Data
Manage Security in Multitenant databases - Oracle Database: Managing
Multitenant Architecture Ed 1 Manage Security in Multitenant databases
Manage PDB lockdown profiles
Audit Users in CDBs and PDBs
Manage other types of policies in application containers
Configuring and Using RMAN - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop Configure RMAN and the Database for Recoverability
Configureand Using an RMAN recovery catalog
Performing Recovery - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Restore and Recovering Databases with RMAN
Perform Non RMAN database recovery
RMAN Troubleshooting and Tuning - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery
Workshop Interpret the RMAN message output
Diagnose RMAN performance issues
Creating an Oracle Database by using DBCA - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch
and Upgrade Workshop Create, Delete and Configure Databases using DBCA
Upgrade the Oracle Database - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade
Workshop Plan for Upgrading an Oracle Database
Upgrade an Oracle Database
Perform Post-Upgrade tasks
Using General Overall Database Enhancements - Oracle Database 19c: New
Features for Administrators Install Oracle Database software
Create, Delete and Configure Databases using DBCA
Creating CDBs and Regular PDBs
Use Miscellaneaous 19c New Features
Using Diagnosibility Enhancements - Oracle Database 19c: New Features for
Administrators Use new Diagnoseability Features
Tuning SQL Statements - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding The Oracle Optimizer
Using The SQL Tuning Advisor
Managing Optimizer Statistics
Using The SQL Access Advisor
Understanding The SQL Tuning Process
QUESTION 1 Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts?
(Choose three.)
A. All metrics are instance related.
B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying
problem is resolved.
D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.
E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.
F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.
Correct Answer: C,E,F
QUESTION 2
While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your
compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck.
FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.
Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.
B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.
D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.
Correct Answer: C,E
QUESTION 3 For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the
CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)
A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same
CDB.
B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a
PDB
C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB
D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a
PDB
E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB
F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the
CDB seed
What you’ll learn in this course The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
v1.0 gives you the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and
troubleshoot an enterprise network. This course covers advanced routing and
infrastructure technologies, expanding on the topics covered in the Implementing
and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0 course.
This course helps prepare you to take the exam, Implementing Cisco® Enterprise
Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI), which leads to the new CCNP®
Enterprise and Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure
Implementation certifications. The exam will be available beginning February 24,
2020.
Course duration Instructor-led training: 5 days with hands-on lab practice
Virtual instructor-led training: 5 days of web-based classes with hands-on lab
practice
E-learning: Equivalent of 5 days of instruction with hands-on lab practice
How you'll benefit
This course will help you: Gain the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot
an enterprise network
Qualify for professional-level job roles in advance routing and services
Prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services
(300-410 ENARSI) exam, which will be available beginning February 24, 2020
What to expect in the exam
This course will help you prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced
Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam. This exam tests your knowledge of
implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and
services. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.
After you pass 300-410 ENARSI: You earn the Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure
Implementation certification.
You satisfy the concentration requirement for the new CCNP Enterprise
certification. To complete your CCNP Enterprise certification, pass the
Enterprise core exam, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies
(350-401 ENCOR).
Who should enroll Enterprise network engineers
System engineers
System administrators
Network administrators
Technology areas Enterprise networking
Routing and switching
Course details
Objectives
After taking this course, you should be able to: Configure classic Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and
named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Optimize classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Configure Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)v2 and OSPFv3 in IPv4 and IPv6
environments
Optimize OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 behavior
Troubleshoot OSPFv2 for IPv4 and OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Implement route redistribution using filtering mechanisms
Troubleshoot redistribution
Implement path control using Policy-Based Routing (PBR) and IP service level
agreement (SLA)
Configure Multiprotocol-Border Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP) in IPv4 and IPv6
environments
Optimize MP-BGP in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Troubleshoot MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Describe the features of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Describe the major architectural components of an MPLS VPN
Identify the routing and packet forwarding functionalities for MPLS VPNs
Explain how packets are forwarded in an MPLS VPN environment
Implement Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS®) Dynamic Multipoint VPNs (DMVPNs)
Implement Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Describe the tools available to secure the IPV6 first hop
Troubleshoot Cisco router security features
Troubleshoot infrastructure security and services
Before taking this course, you should have: General understanding of network fundamentals
Basic knowledge of how to implement LANs
General understanding of how to manage network devices
General understanding of how to secure network devices
Basic knowledge of network automation
These Cisco courses are recommended to help you meet these prerequisites: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
v1.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 1 (ICND1) v3.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 2 (ICND2) v3.0
Lab Outline
Configure EIGRP Using Classic Mode and Named Mode for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the EIGRP Topology Table
Configure EIGRP Stub Routing, Summarization, and Default Routing
Configure EIGRP Load Balancing and Authentication
LAB: Troubleshoot EIGRP Issues
Configure OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the Link-State Database
Configure OSPF Stub Areas and Summarization
Configure OSPF Authentication
Troubleshoot OSPF
Implement Routing Protocol Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution Using Route Maps
Troubleshoot Redistribution Issues
Implement PBR
Configure IBGP and External Border Gateway Protocol (EBGP)
Implement BGP Path Selection
Configure BGP Advanced Features
Configure BGP Route Reflectors
Configure MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot BGP Issues
Implement PBR
Configure Routing with VRF-Lite
Implement Cisco IOS DMVPN
Obtain IPv6 Addresses Dynamically
Troubleshoot DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 Issues
Troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6 Access Control List (ACL) Issues
Configure and Verify Control Plane Policing
Configure and Verify Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF)
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 1
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 2
QUESTION 1
Automatic 6-to-4 tunnels exist between dual-stack routers (A, B, and C). One
router has the IPv6 address,
Which of the following addresses is the IPv4 address of the router with the IPv6
address
A. 10.176.15.131
B. 10.200.80.67
C. 208.48.107.192
D. 208.138.16.110
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is 208.48.107.192. In an automatic
6-to-4 tunnel, IPv6 addresses have the
2002::/16 prefix. The 32-bit IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is then embedded
into the IPv6 address. The 32
bits of the IPv4 address is embedded in the second and third quartet of the IPv6
address. The second and
third quarters in the IPv6 address correspond to D030:6BC0. The conversion of
these hexadecimal digits into
decimal is given as follows:
The IPv6 router does not have 10.176.15.131 as its IPv4 address. The
10.176.15.131 address is the IPv4
equivalent of the second and third quarter (05B0:0F81) in the source IPv6
address.
The other two IPv4 addresses are incorrect as they pertain to neither of the two
IPv6 hosts.
Objective:
Network Principles
Sub-Objective:
Recognize proposed changes to the network
References:
Cisco IOS IPv6 Implementation Guide > Implementing Tunneling for IPv6
QUESTION 2 You have recently joined a company as the network administrator. You have
been asked to complete the
configuration on the border routers for an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel between
several IPv6 network domains. The
commands that are currently configured on the routers are as follows:
ipv6 route tunnel
interface tunnel
ipv6 address
tunnel source
Which of the following additional commands is required to complete the
configuration of automatic 6-to-4 tunnel on the border routers?
A. tunnel mode ipv6ip
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel
D. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
An automatic IPv4-compatible IPv6 tunnel exists between two IPv6 networks. The
two IPv6 networks belong to
different BGP autonomous systems (AS). The tunnel source has the IPv4 address
172.168.111.65/24 and the
tunnel destination has the IPv4 address 172.168.222.80/24.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the tunnel source and tunnel
destination IPv6 addresses?
(Choose two.)
A. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is 172.168.111.65::
B. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is ::172.168.111.65
C. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is 172.168.222.80::
D. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is ::172.168.222.80
Summary Passing the ServiceNow System Administrator Certification Exam demonstrates
mastery of ServiceNow System Administration and certifies that a candidate has
the skills and essential knowledge necessary to manage the configuration,
implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow platform.
Successfully passing this certification exam also establishes the core skill set
necessary to pursue further certification for individuals.
Prerequisites Candidates can complete either a three‑day ServiceNow Fundamentals training
course or the on‑demand ServiceNow Fundamentals training course offered in Now
Learning.
To be successful on this exam, candidates should have attended the ServiceNow
Fundamentals class and have at least six months of hands‑on experience with
ServiceNow.
Industry experience with database concepts and system management, as well as
knowledge of IT Help Desk processes and the incident, problem, and change
workflows is also helpful.
To prepare for the exam, please download the exam blueprint and review what will
be covered.
Prior to completing registration, attendees will be required to review and
accept an End User Agreement.
Exam Registration and Scheduling ServiceNow Certification exams are computer‑based, multiple‑choice exams
delivered by ServiceNow testing partner Kryterion, in a proctored environment.
Online proctoring is also available.
Appointments may be made in advance or on the actual test day, subject to
availability. Please visit WebAssessor to register and sign up for the exam.
Online Proctoring Requirements Attendees who would like to review the requirements, including the need for
a standalone webcam (one that is NOT integrated to a computer/laptop), please
visit the WebAssessor download page.
Attendees must also use a Windows‑based PC and Internet Explorer or Google
Chrome.
To prepare for the exam, please download the exam blueprint and review what will
be covered.
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified System Administrator Exam Specification defines the
purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and
prerequisites to become a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.
Exam Purpose The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification demonstrates that a
successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the
configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow system.
Successfully passing this Certification exam also establishes a set of skills
necessary to continue in the ServiceNow Certification paths. It is a
prerequisite for advanced courses.
Exam Audience The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification exam is available to
ServiceNow customers, partners, sales engineers, and others interested in
becoming a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course in preparation for the Certified System Administrator exam. Information
provided in the following ServiceNow training course contains source material
for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals or ServiceNow Fundamentals (on demand) *Upon
completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for the
Certified System Administrator exam.
Recommended Knowledge & Education ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• Certified System Administrator (CSA): Certification Test Prep
Additional Recommended Experience • Industry experience with database concepts and system management.
• System administrator role and/or access to ServiceNow administrative
applications and modules.
• Some knowledge of IT Help Desk processes and the incident, problem, and change
workflows is also helpful.
• Three (3) to six (6) months experience using and/or maintaining a ServiceNow
instance.
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and
activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam 1 User Interface & Navigation ServiceNow
Overview Lists and Filters Forms and Templates Branding 20%
2 Collaboration User Administration Task Management Notifications Reporting
20% 3 Database Administration Data Schema CMDB Application/Access Control Import
Sets 30%
4 Self-Service & Process Automation Knowledge Management Service Catalog 20%
Workflows/Flow Designer 5 Intro to Scripting & Application Tools Scripting
Migration and Integration Development 10%
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the ServiceNow Fundamentals
training prerequisite.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam.
This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own
system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure The exam consists of approximately (60) questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer) For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four
possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options
and selects the one response which most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is
immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are
not provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam
again up to three more times for a cost of $150.
QUESTION 1 A Service Catalog may include which of the following components?
A. Order Guides, Exchange Rates, Calendars
B. Order Guides, Catalog Items, and Interceptors
C. Catalog Items, Asset Contracts, Task Surveys
D. Record Producers, Order Guides, and Catalog Items
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which one of the following statements applies to a set of fields when they
are coalesced during an import?
A. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated
with the information being imported
B. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the system does not create
a Transform Map
C. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the system creates a new
record
D. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is
updated with the information being imported
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 As it relates to ServiceNow reporting, which of the following statements
describes what a metric can do?
A. A metric is a report gauge used on homepages to display real-time data
B. A metric is a time measurement used to report the effectiveness of workflows
and SLAs
C. A metric is used to measure and evaluate the effectiveness of IT service
management processes
D. A metric is a comparative measurement used to report the effectiveness of
flows and SLAs.
Details Fee: $250 USD
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 30 (partial credit provide on some questions)
Difficulty: Advanced
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Language: English only
PSM II Subject Areas The Scrum Guide and The Nexus Guide
Ways to Learn More to help you prepare
Required course: None
Recommended courses: Professional Scrum Master and Professional Scrum Master II
Recommended Certification: PSM I
Practice assessments: PSM I, PSPO I, PSD I, Scrum Open
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only
Prove Your Advanced Knowledge of Scrum The Professional Scrum MasterTM level II (PSM II) assessment is available to
anyone who wishes to demonstrate his or her ability to apply the Scrum framework
to solving advanced, complex problems in the real world. Those that pass the
assessment will receive the industry recognized PSM II Certification as an
indication of their advanced knowledge and abilities pertaining to Scrum and the
role of the Scrum Master.
Anyone attempting the PSM II should have advanced Scrum knowledge, in-depth
Scrum experience and/or have taken the Professional Scrum Master course prior to
taking this assessment. However, attending a course is neither necessary nor
sufficient for certification. The PSM II assessment is very difficult, and
consists of multiple-choice questions based on your knowledge of Scrum and how
you would handle real-world situations.
Prepare for the Assessment The assessment is exhaustive and rigorous. Many questions ask you to think
about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum Guide, apply content from the PSM
II subject areas, as well as application of your own experience.
Reading the Scrum Guide and taking the Open Assessments alone isn't enough
preparation and we recommend reviewing the content below:
The assessment covers topics from multiple Focus Areas defined by the
Professional Scrum Competencies and detailed on the PSM II Suggested Reading
page. Questions will be selected at random from the
Focus Areas listed.
Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum
Guide and how you would apply Scrum within a Scrum Team.
The Scrum Master learning path contains many additional resources to help you
prepare to take the PSM II Assessment.
Since this is an advanced Scrum Master certification, reading content from the
Product Owner, Agile Leader, and Development Team Member learning paths may also
be helpful.
Attending the 2-day Professional Scrum Master II course is highly recommended.
Find additional information to help you prepare for the PSM Assessment and ways
to learn about Scrum.
To protect the integrity of the certification process, Scrum.org does not share
information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or
incorrectly. Learn More
Search the list of existing Professional Scrum certification holders here or see
a breakdown on how many people hold certifications.
The cost of PSM II is $250 USD. Assessment passwords do not expire and remain
valid until used. See more details below.
When you purchase a password, it is set up in our system and emailed to you
within one business day.
Certification
If you pass the PSM II assessment you will receive the industry-recognized "PSM
II" certification, along with a PSM II logo that you can use to identify your
achievement. In addition, your name will be listed on Scrum.org.
Unlike other Scrum certifications that require only class attendance, Scrum.org
certification requires a minimum score on an online assessment. This gives
Scrum.org certification teeth and ensures that it has true value in the
marketplace.
Search the list of Professional Scrum Certificate Holders
QUESTION 1 A Scrum Master is not only a servant-leader to the Scrum Team and
organization, it’s also considered a management position.
Which three activities describe what a Scrum Master manages as reflected by the
Scrum Guide? (Choose three.)
A. Reporting on the performance of the Sprint.
B. The way Scrum is understood and enacted within the organization.
C. Managing the capacity and utilization of each Development Team member.
D. Managing the process in which Scrum is applied.
E. Managing the Product Backlog items and work in the Sprint Backlog.
F. Removing organizational impediments that limits the team’s progress and
productivity.
Correct Answer: B,D,F
QUESTION 2 An organization has just hired you as a new Scrum Master to help them
transition their teams from their
current traditional process to Scrum. The teams are currently structured to
specialize in a single function. This
is also known as component teams where a team would only address a single layer
(i.e. design, frontend,
backend, database, testing, etc.). You’ve introduced the concept of
cross-functional teams where all the skills
needed to produce business functionality, from end to end, are inside of a
single team.
What should you keep in mind when transitioning from siloed teams to
cross-functional teams? (Choose two.)
A. It is easier to compare the performance between cross-functional teams in
order to identify to which teams to assign tasks and which teams need additional
coaching.
B. Newly formed teams will need time to stabilize before reaching their peak
performance. During the initial stages of forming, performance will suffer and
productivity may be low, although even then delivery of
business value is still likely to increase.
C. Without feature teams, you cannot do Scrum. Postpone Scrum adoption until the
teams are reorganized in feature teams.
D. People from the different layers and components will need time to become
accustomed to working and delivering unified functionality together as one Scrum
Team thus productivity may suffer.
Correct Answer: B,D
QUESTION 3 Paul is a Product Owner for multiple products. Each product is allocated a
dedicated Scrum Team and a set
budget. Based on the average velocity of a previous product release, Paul had
estimated a new product to
take 9 Sprints to complete. The average velocity of the previous product release
was 50 completed units of
work per Sprint. Over the first 3 Sprints, the Development Team reported an
average velocity of 40 completed
units per Sprint, while not fully completing the required integration tests. The
Development Team estimates
that integration testing would require additional effort to make the increments
shippable. The Development
Team is unsure if the required velocity is achievable.
What is the most effective way to recover?
A. In the next Sprints, the Development Team strives to make the selected work
as close to ‘done’ as possible
and at the minimum 90% completed. Any undone work is divided into new Product
Backlog Items that will
be deferred to the last Sprint in order to maintain stable velocity.
B. The Development Team informs Paul that the progress he has perceived to date
is not correct. The
Increment is not releasable. They give Paul their estimate of the effort it
would take to get the previous
work ‘done’, and suggest doing that work first before proceeding with new
features. The team also reestimates
the effort to make the remaining Product Backlog items ‘done’, including all
integration effort. In
the end, it is Paul’s call to continue the project or to cancel.
C. The Scrum Master will manage the Sprint Backlog and assign work to the
Development Team members to
ensure maximum utilization of each member. He/she will keep track of unused
resources so that it does not
impact the budget. Unused budget can be allocated for additional Sprints if
needed.
D. The Scrum Master sets the open work aside to be performed in one or more
release Sprints. They remind
Paul to find funding for enough Release Sprints in which this remaining work can
be done. Up to one
release Sprint per three development Sprints may be required. It is Paul’s role
to inform users and
stakeholders of the impact on the release date.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Paul, a Product Owner of one of the Scrum Teams, has been attending the
Daily Scrum. During the Daily
Scrum, the Development Team members have been reporting their daily work to Paul
so that he is aware of
their Sprint progress and what each member is working on.
What is the best action for the Scrum Master to take?
A. Ask Paul to stop attending the Daily Scrum.
B. Coach Paul and Development Team members on the purpose of the Scrum events
and let them figure out what to do in this situation.
C. Allow the Paul to participate in the Daily Scrum as he is responsible for the
success of the product.
D. Facilitate the Daily Scrums to avoid any conflicts between the Development
Team members and Paul.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Steven, the Scrum Master, is approached by one of the Development Team
members saying that they are not
completing regression tests for all of the work they are performing to the level
defined in the Definition of Done.
They have discussed this with the Product Owner and decided to remove regression
testing from the Definition of Done.
Which two actions are the most appropriate for Steven to take? (Choose two.)
A. Reject the decision as the long term maintainability of the product will be
negatively impacted by modifying the Definition of Done.
B. Accept the decision as a mutual agreement has been made between the
Development Team and the Product Owner.
C. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner what problem they are trying
to solve by altering the Definition of Done and removing regression testing from
it. In what ways will this decision impact
transparency and quality?
D. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner if they are still able to
produce potentially shippable product increments by altering the Definition of
Done?
