300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) Exam

Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English, Japanese

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and services, including:

Layer 3
VPN services
Infrastructure security
Infrastructure services
Infrastructure automation

What you’ll learn in this course
The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) v1.0 gives you the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot an enterprise network. This course covers advanced routing and infrastructure technologies, expanding on the topics covered in the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0 course.

This course helps prepare you to take the exam, Implementing Cisco® Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI), which leads to the new CCNP® Enterprise and Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure Implementation certifications. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.

Course duration
Instructor-led training: 5 days with hands-on lab practice
Virtual instructor-led training: 5 days of web-based classes with hands-on lab practice
E-learning: Equivalent of 5 days of instruction with hands-on lab practice

How you'll benefit

This course will help you:
Gain the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot an enterprise network
Qualify for professional-level job roles in advance routing and services
Prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam, which will be available beginning February 24, 2020

What to expect in the exam
This course will help you prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam. This exam tests your knowledge of implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and services. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.

After you pass 300-410 ENARSI:
You earn the Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure Implementation certification.
You satisfy the concentration requirement for the new CCNP Enterprise certification. To complete your CCNP Enterprise certification, pass the Enterprise core exam, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR).

Who should enroll
Enterprise network engineers
System engineers
System administrators
Network administrators

Technology areas
Enterprise networking
Routing and switching

Course details
Objectives

After taking this course, you should be able to:
Configure classic Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Optimize classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Configure Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)v2 and OSPFv3 in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Optimize OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 behavior
Troubleshoot OSPFv2 for IPv4 and OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Implement route redistribution using filtering mechanisms
Troubleshoot redistribution
Implement path control using Policy-Based Routing (PBR) and IP service level agreement (SLA)
Configure Multiprotocol-Border Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP) in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Optimize MP-BGP in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Troubleshoot MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Describe the features of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Describe the major architectural components of an MPLS VPN
Identify the routing and packet forwarding functionalities for MPLS VPNs
Explain how packets are forwarded in an MPLS VPN environment
Implement Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS®) Dynamic Multipoint VPNs (DMVPNs)
Implement Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Describe the tools available to secure the IPV6 first hop
Troubleshoot Cisco router security features
Troubleshoot infrastructure security and services

Before taking this course, you should have:
General understanding of network fundamentals
Basic knowledge of how to implement LANs
General understanding of how to manage network devices
General understanding of how to secure network devices
Basic knowledge of network automation

These Cisco courses are recommended to help you meet these prerequisites:
Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 1 (ICND1) v3.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 2 (ICND2) v3.0

Outline
Implementing EIGRP
Optimizing EIGRP
Troubleshooting EIGRP
Implementing OSPF
Optimizing OSPF
Troubleshooting OSPF
Implementing Internal Border Gateway Protocol (IBGP)
Optimizing BGP
Implementing MP-BGP
Troubleshooting BGP
Configuring Redistribution
Troubleshooting Redistribution
Implementing Path Control
Exploring MPLS
Introducing MPLS L3 VPN Architecture
Introducing MPLS L3 VPN Routing
Configuring Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)-Lite
Implementing DMVPN
Implementing DHCP
Troubleshooting DHCP
Introducing IPv6 First Hop Security
Securing Cisco Routers
Troubleshooting Infrastructure Security and Services

Lab Outline
Configure EIGRP Using Classic Mode and Named Mode for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the EIGRP Topology Table
Configure EIGRP Stub Routing, Summarization, and Default Routing
Configure EIGRP Load Balancing and Authentication
LAB: Troubleshoot EIGRP Issues
Configure OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the Link-State Database
Configure OSPF Stub Areas and Summarization
Configure OSPF Authentication
Troubleshoot OSPF
Implement Routing Protocol Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution Using Route Maps
Troubleshoot Redistribution Issues
Implement PBR
Configure IBGP and External Border Gateway Protocol (EBGP)
Implement BGP Path Selection
Configure BGP Advanced Features
Configure BGP Route Reflectors
Configure MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot BGP Issues
Implement PBR
Configure Routing with VRF-Lite
Implement Cisco IOS DMVPN
Obtain IPv6 Addresses Dynamically
Troubleshoot DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 Issues
Troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6 Access Control List (ACL) Issues
Configure and Verify Control Plane Policing
Configure and Verify Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF)
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 1
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 2

QUESTION 1
Automatic 6-to-4 tunnels exist between dual-stack routers (A, B, and C). One router has the IPv6 address,
Which of the following addresses is the IPv4 address of the router with the IPv6 address

A. 10.176.15.131
B. 10.200.80.67
C. 208.48.107.192
D. 208.138.16.110

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is 208.48.107.192. In an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel, IPv6 addresses have the
2002::/16 prefix. The 32-bit IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is then embedded into the IPv6 address. The 32
bits of the IPv4 address is embedded in the second and third quartet of the IPv6 address. The second and
third quarters in the IPv6 address correspond to D030:6BC0. The conversion of these hexadecimal digits into
decimal is given as follows:
The IPv6 router does not have 10.176.15.131 as its IPv4 address. The 10.176.15.131 address is the IPv4
equivalent of the second and third quarter (05B0:0F81) in the source IPv6 address.
The other two IPv4 addresses are incorrect as they pertain to neither of the two IPv6 hosts.
Objective:
Network Principles
Sub-Objective:
Recognize proposed changes to the network
References:
Cisco IOS IPv6 Implementation Guide > Implementing Tunneling for IPv6

QUESTION 2
You have recently joined a company as the network administrator. You have been asked to complete the
configuration on the border routers for an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel between several IPv6 network domains. The
commands that are currently configured on the routers are as follows:
ipv6 route tunnel
interface tunnel
ipv6 address
tunnel source
Which of the following additional commands is required to complete the configuration of automatic 6-to-4 tunnel on the border routers?

A. tunnel mode ipv6ip
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel
D. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An automatic IPv4-compatible IPv6 tunnel exists between two IPv6 networks. The two IPv6 networks belong to
different BGP autonomous systems (AS). The tunnel source has the IPv4 address 172.168.111.65/24 and the
tunnel destination has the IPv4 address 172.168.222.80/24.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the tunnel source and tunnel destination IPv6 addresses?
(Choose two.)

A. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is 172.168.111.65::
B. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is ::172.168.111.65
C. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is 172.168.222.80::
D. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is ::172.168.222.80

Correct Answer: BD

Actualkey 300-410 exam pdf, Certkingdom Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-410 PDF

Best Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-410 Certification, Cisco CCNP Enterprise 300-410 Training at certkingdom.com

ServiceNow-CSA ServiceNow Certified System Administrator Exam

Summary
Passing the ServiceNow System Administrator Certification Exam demonstrates mastery of ServiceNow System Administration and certifies that a candidate has the skills and essential knowledge necessary to manage the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow platform.

Successfully passing this certification exam also establishes the core skill set necessary to pursue further certification for individuals.

Prerequisites
Candidates can complete either a three‑day ServiceNow Fundamentals training course or the on‑demand ServiceNow Fundamentals training course offered in Now Learning.

To be successful on this exam, candidates should have attended the ServiceNow Fundamentals class and have at least six months of hands‑on experience with ServiceNow.

Industry experience with database concepts and system management, as well as knowledge of IT Help Desk processes and the incident, problem, and change workflows is also helpful.

To prepare for the exam, please download the exam blueprint and review what will be covered.

Prior to completing registration, attendees will be required to review and accept an End User Agreement.

Exam Registration and Scheduling
ServiceNow Certification exams are computer‑based, multiple‑choice exams delivered by ServiceNow testing partner Kryterion, in a proctored environment. Online proctoring is also available.

Appointments may be made in advance or on the actual test day, subject to availability. Please visit WebAssessor to register and sign up for the exam.

Online Proctoring Requirements
Attendees who would like to review the requirements, including the need for a standalone webcam (one that is NOT integrated to a computer/laptop), please visit the WebAssessor download page.

Attendees must also use a Windows‑based PC and Internet Explorer or Google Chrome.

To prepare for the exam, please download the exam blueprint and review what will be covered.

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified System Administrator Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.

Exam Purpose
The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification demonstrates that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow system.
Successfully passing this Certification exam also establishes a set of skills necessary to continue in the ServiceNow Certification paths. It is a prerequisite for advanced courses.

Exam Audience
The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, sales engineers, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course in preparation for the Certified System Administrator exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course contains source material for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals or ServiceNow Fundamentals (on demand) *Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for the Certified System Administrator exam.

Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• Certified System Administrator (CSA): Certification Test Prep

Additional Recommended Experience
• Industry experience with database concepts and system management.
• System administrator role and/or access to ServiceNow administrative applications and modules.
• Some knowledge of IT Help Desk processes and the incident, problem, and change workflows is also helpful.
• Three (3) to six (6) months experience using and/or maintaining a ServiceNow instance.
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.

The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam 1 User Interface & Navigation ServiceNow Overview Lists and Filters Forms and Templates Branding 20%

2 Collaboration User Administration Task Management Notifications Reporting
20% 3 Database Administration Data Schema CMDB Application/Access Control Import Sets 30%

4 Self-Service & Process Automation Knowledge Management Service Catalog 20%

Workflows/Flow Designer 5 Intro to Scripting & Application Tools Scripting Migration and Integration Development 10%

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the ServiceNow Fundamentals training prerequisite.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.

Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately (60) questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response which most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)

For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times for a cost of $150.

QUESTION 1
A Service Catalog may include which of the following components?

A. Order Guides, Exchange Rates, Calendars
B. Order Guides, Catalog Items, and Interceptors
C. Catalog Items, Asset Contracts, Task Surveys
D. Record Producers, Order Guides, and Catalog Items

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which one of the following statements applies to a set of fields when they are coalesced during an import?

A. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated with the information being imported
B. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the system does not create a Transform Map
C. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the system creates a new record
D. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated with the information being imported

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
As it relates to ServiceNow reporting, which of the following statements describes what a metric can do?

A. A metric is a report gauge used on homepages to display real-time data
B. A metric is a time measurement used to report the effectiveness of workflows and SLAs
C. A metric is used to measure and evaluate the effectiveness of IT service management processes
D. A metric is a comparative measurement used to report the effectiveness of flows and SLAs.

Correct Answer: C

Actualkey ServiceNow CSA, Certkingdom ServiceNow CSA PDF

Best ServiceNow CSA Certification, ServiceNow CSA Training at certkingdom.com

PSM-II Professional Scrum Master level II (PSM II) Exam

Details
Fee: $250 USD
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 30 (partial credit provide on some questions)
Difficulty: Advanced
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Language: English only

PSM II Subject Areas
The Scrum Guide and The Nexus Guide
Ways to Learn More to help you prepare
Required course: None
Recommended courses: Professional Scrum Master and Professional Scrum Master II
Recommended Certification: PSM I
Practice assessments: PSM I, PSPO I, PSD I, Scrum Open
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only

Prove Your Advanced Knowledge of Scrum
The Professional Scrum MasterTM level II (PSM II) assessment is available to anyone who wishes to demonstrate his or her ability to apply the Scrum framework to solving advanced, complex problems in the real world. Those that pass the assessment will receive the industry recognized PSM II Certification as an indication of their advanced knowledge and abilities pertaining to Scrum and the role of the Scrum Master.

Anyone attempting the PSM II should have advanced Scrum knowledge, in-depth Scrum experience and/or have taken the Professional Scrum Master course prior to taking this assessment. However, attending a course is neither necessary nor sufficient for certification. The PSM II assessment is very difficult, and consists of multiple-choice questions based on your knowledge of Scrum and how you would handle real-world situations.

Prepare for the Assessment
The assessment is exhaustive and rigorous. Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum Guide, apply content from the PSM II subject areas, as well as application of your own experience.

Reading the Scrum Guide and taking the Open Assessments alone isn't enough preparation and we recommend reviewing the content below:

The assessment covers topics from multiple Focus Areas defined by the Professional Scrum Competencies and detailed on the PSM II Suggested Reading page. Questions will be selected at random from the
Focus Areas listed.

Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum Guide and how you would apply Scrum within a Scrum Team.
The Scrum Master learning path contains many additional resources to help you prepare to take the PSM II Assessment.
Since this is an advanced Scrum Master certification, reading content from the Product Owner, Agile Leader, and Development Team Member learning paths may also be helpful.

Attending the 2-day Professional Scrum Master II course is highly recommended. Find additional information to help you prepare for the PSM Assessment and ways to learn about Scrum.

To protect the integrity of the certification process, Scrum.org does not share information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or incorrectly. Learn More

Search the list of existing Professional Scrum certification holders here or see a breakdown on how many people hold certifications.

The cost of PSM II is $250 USD. Assessment passwords do not expire and remain valid until used. See more details below.

When you purchase a password, it is set up in our system and emailed to you within one business day.

Certification
If you pass the PSM II assessment you will receive the industry-recognized "PSM II" certification, along with a PSM II logo that you can use to identify your achievement. In addition, your name will be listed on Scrum.org.

Unlike other Scrum certifications that require only class attendance, Scrum.org certification requires a minimum score on an online assessment. This gives Scrum.org certification teeth and ensures that it has true value in the marketplace.

Search the list of Professional Scrum Certificate Holders

QUESTION 1
A Scrum Master is not only a servant-leader to the Scrum Team and organization, it’s also considered a management position.
Which three activities describe what a Scrum Master manages as reflected by the Scrum Guide? (Choose three.)

A. Reporting on the performance of the Sprint.
B. The way Scrum is understood and enacted within the organization.
C. Managing the capacity and utilization of each Development Team member.
D. Managing the process in which Scrum is applied.
E. Managing the Product Backlog items and work in the Sprint Backlog.
F. Removing organizational impediments that limits the team’s progress and productivity.

Correct Answer: B,D,F

QUESTION 2
An organization has just hired you as a new Scrum Master to help them transition their teams from their
current traditional process to Scrum. The teams are currently structured to specialize in a single function. This
is also known as component teams where a team would only address a single layer (i.e. design, frontend,
backend, database, testing, etc.). You’ve introduced the concept of cross-functional teams where all the skills
needed to produce business functionality, from end to end, are inside of a single team.
What should you keep in mind when transitioning from siloed teams to cross-functional teams? (Choose two.)

A. It is easier to compare the performance between cross-functional teams in order to identify to which teams to assign tasks and which teams need additional coaching.
B. Newly formed teams will need time to stabilize before reaching their peak performance. During the initial stages of forming, performance will suffer and productivity may be low, although even then delivery of
business value is still likely to increase.
C. Without feature teams, you cannot do Scrum. Postpone Scrum adoption until the teams are reorganized in feature teams.
D. People from the different layers and components will need time to become accustomed to working and delivering unified functionality together as one Scrum Team thus productivity may suffer.

Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Paul is a Product Owner for multiple products. Each product is allocated a dedicated Scrum Team and a set
budget. Based on the average velocity of a previous product release, Paul had estimated a new product to
take 9 Sprints to complete. The average velocity of the previous product release was 50 completed units of
work per Sprint. Over the first 3 Sprints, the Development Team reported an average velocity of 40 completed
units per Sprint, while not fully completing the required integration tests. The Development Team estimates
that integration testing would require additional effort to make the increments shippable. The Development
Team is unsure if the required velocity is achievable.
What is the most effective way to recover?

A. In the next Sprints, the Development Team strives to make the selected work as close to ‘done’ as possible
and at the minimum 90% completed. Any undone work is divided into new Product Backlog Items that will
be deferred to the last Sprint in order to maintain stable velocity.

B. The Development Team informs Paul that the progress he has perceived to date is not correct. The
Increment is not releasable. They give Paul their estimate of the effort it would take to get the previous
work ‘done’, and suggest doing that work first before proceeding with new features. The team also reestimates
the effort to make the remaining Product Backlog items ‘done’, including all integration effort. In
the end, it is Paul’s call to continue the project or to cancel.

C. The Scrum Master will manage the Sprint Backlog and assign work to the Development Team members to
ensure maximum utilization of each member. He/she will keep track of unused resources so that it does not
impact the budget. Unused budget can be allocated for additional Sprints if needed.

D. The Scrum Master sets the open work aside to be performed in one or more release Sprints. They remind
Paul to find funding for enough Release Sprints in which this remaining work can be done. Up to one
release Sprint per three development Sprints may be required. It is Paul’s role to inform users and
stakeholders of the impact on the release date.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Paul, a Product Owner of one of the Scrum Teams, has been attending the Daily Scrum. During the Daily
Scrum, the Development Team members have been reporting their daily work to Paul so that he is aware of
their Sprint progress and what each member is working on.
What is the best action for the Scrum Master to take?

A. Ask Paul to stop attending the Daily Scrum.
B. Coach Paul and Development Team members on the purpose of the Scrum events and let them figure out what to do in this situation.
C. Allow the Paul to participate in the Daily Scrum as he is responsible for the success of the product.
D. Facilitate the Daily Scrums to avoid any conflicts between the Development Team members and Paul.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Steven, the Scrum Master, is approached by one of the Development Team members saying that they are not
completing regression tests for all of the work they are performing to the level defined in the Definition of Done.
They have discussed this with the Product Owner and decided to remove regression testing from the Definition of Done.
Which two actions are the most appropriate for Steven to take? (Choose two.)

A. Reject the decision as the long term maintainability of the product will be negatively impacted by modifying the Definition of Done.
B. Accept the decision as a mutual agreement has been made between the Development Team and the Product Owner.
C. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner what problem they are trying to solve by altering the Definition of Done and removing regression testing from it. In what ways will this decision impact
transparency and quality?
D. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner if they are still able to produce potentially shippable product increments by altering the Definition of Done?

Correct Answer: C,D


Certkingdom Review, Certkingdom Scrum PSM-II PDF

Best Scrum PSM-II Certification, Scrum PSM-II Training at certkingdom.com

156-215.80 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 Exam

Install R80 management and a security gateway in a distributed environment
Configure objects, rules, and settings to define a security policy
Work with multiple concurrent administrators and define permission profiles

How You Will Benefit
Be prepared to defend against network threats
Evaluate existing security policies and optimize the rule base
Manage user access to corporate LANs

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?

A. VPN key
B. VPN community
C. VPN trust entities
D. VPN domain

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and
remote locations, which are managed centrally by R80 Security Management Server. One central location has
an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570 series
appliance with R71. Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central
management and firewall on each location?

A. On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC.
B. On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256.
C. The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC.
D. On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?

A. Medium Path
B. Accelerated Path
C. High Priority Path
D. Slow Path

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?

A. Machine Hide NAT
B. Address Range Hide NAT
C. Network Hide NAT
D. Machine Static NAT

Correct Answer: B,C

 

Click here to view complete Q&A of 156-215.80 exam
Certkingdom Review, Certkingdom PDF

Best Check Point CCSA R80 156-215.80 Certification, Check Point CCSA R80 156-215.80 Training at certkingdom.com

 

CISM Certified Information Security Manager Exam

Exam Requirements
Eligibility is established at the time of exam registration and is good for twelve (12) months (365 days). Exam registration and payment are required before you can schedule and take an exam. You will forfeit your fees if you do not schedule and take the exam during your 12-month eligibility period. No eligibility deferrals or extensions are allowed.

is the reason we exist – to help business technology professionals and their enterprises around the world realize the positive potential of technology.  Our Promise is how we as an organization and as individuals, deliver on our Purpose – the work we do every day to inspire confidence that enables innovation through technology.

Applicants must meet the following requirements to become CISM Certified:
Successfully Complete the CISM Examination: The examination is open to all individuals who have an interest in information systems audit, control and security. All are encouraged to work toward and take the examination. Successful examination candidates will be sent all information required to apply for certification with their notification of a passing score.

For a more detailed description of the exam see CISM Certification Job Practice.

Adhere to the Code of Professional Ethics: Members of ISACA and/or holders of the CISM designation agree to a Code of Professional Ethics to guide professional and personal conduct.

View ISACA’s Code of Professional Ethics
Adhere to the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Policy: The objectives of the continuing education policy are to: 
Maintain an individual's competency to ensure that all CISMs maintain an adequate level of current knowledge and proficiency. CISMs who successfully comply with the CISM CPE Policy will be better equipped to manage, design, oversee and assess an enterprise’s information security
Provide a means to differentiate between qualified CISMs and those who have not met the requirements for continuation of their certification

Demonstrate the Required Minimum Work Experience: A minimum of 5-years of professional information systems auditing, control or security work experience - as described in the CISM job practice areas - is required for certification. The work experience for CISM certification must be gained within the 10-year period preceding the application date for certification. Candidates have 5-years from the passing date to apply for certification.

Substitutions and waivers may be obtained for a maximum of 2-years as follows:

Two Years:
Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) in good standing
Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) in good standing
Post-graduate degree in information security or a related field (e.g., business administration, information systems, information assurance)

One Year:
One full year of information systems management experience
One full year of general security management experience
Skill-based security certifications (e.g., SANS Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC), Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer (MCSE), CompTIA Security +, Disaster Recovery Institute Certified Business Continuity Professional (CBCP), ESL IT Security Manager)

The experience substitutions will not satisfy any portion of the 3-year information security management work experience requirement.

Exception: Every 2-years as a full-time university instructor teaching the management of information security can be substituted for every 1-year of information security experience.

It is important to note that many individuals choose to take the CISM exam prior to meeting the experience requirements. This practice is acceptable and encouraged although the CISM designation will not be awarded until all requirements are met.

CISM CPE Policy: English | Chinese Simplified | Japanese | Korean | Spanish

CISM Maintenance Requirements
The CISM CPE policy requires the attainment of CPE hours over an annual and three-year certification period. CISMs must comply with the following requirements to retain certification:

Earn and report an annual minimum of twenty (20) CPE hours. These hours must be appropriate to the currency or advancement of the CISM’s knowledge or ability to perform CISM-related tasks. The use of these hours towards meeting the CPE requirements for multiple ISACA certifications is permissible when the professional activity is applicable to satisfying the job-related knowledge of each certification.
Earn and report a minimum of one hundred and twenty (120) CPE hours for a three-year reporting cycle period.
Pay the CISM annual maintenance fee
Comply with the annual CPE audit if selected
Comply with ISACA’s Code of Professional Ethics

Failure to comply with these certification requirements will result in the revocation of an individual’s CISM designation. In addition, as all certificates are owned by ISACA, if revoked, the certificate must be destroyed immediately.

The goal of the continuing professional education (CPE) policy is to ensure that all CISMs maintain an adequate level of current knowledge and proficiency in the field of information systems security management. CISMs who successfully comply with the CPE policy will be better equipped to manage, design, oversee and assess an enterprise’s information security.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security plan?

A. Perform a technical vulnerabilities assessment
B. Analyze the current business strategy
C. Perform a business impact analysis
D. Assess the current levels of security awareness

Correct Answer: B

Section: INFORMATION SECURITY GOVERNANCE

QUESTION 2
Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through presentations that:

A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
The MOST appropriate role for senior management in supporting information security is the:

A. evaluation of vendors offering security products.
B. assessment of risks to the organization.
C. approval of policy statements and funding.
D. monitoring adherence to regulatory requirements.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following would BEST ensure the success of information security governance within an organization?

A. Steering committees approve security projects
B. Security policy training provided to all managers
C. Security training available to all employees on the intranet
D. Steering committees enforce compliance with laws and regulations

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Information security governance is PRIMARILY driven by:

A. technology constraints.
B. regulatory requirements.
C. litigation potential.
D. business strategy.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following represents the MAJOR focus of privacy regulations?

A. Unrestricted data mining
B. Identity theft
C. Human rights protection D.
D. Identifiable personal data

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Investments in information security technologies should be based on:

A. vulnerability assessments.
B. value analysis.
C. business climate.
D. audit recommendations.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Retention of business records should PRIMARILY be based on:

A. business strategy and direction.
B. regulatory and legal requirements.
C. storage capacity and longevity.
D. business ease and value analysis.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?

A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Successful implementation of information security governance will FIRST require:

A. security awareness training.
B. updated security policies.
C. a computer incident management team.
D. a security architecture.

Correct Answer: B
Click here to view complete Q&A of CISM Exam
Certkingdom Review, Certkingdom PDF

Best Isaca CISM Certification, Isaca CISM Training at certkingdom.com

Marketo Certified Expert Exam

Demonstrate your in-depth knowledge and proficiency with Marketo

Earn the Marketo Certified Expert credential
The Marketo Certified Expert designation is a technical marketing credential that validates competency, expertise, and operational knowledge in the broad use of Marketo. We encourage all Marketo customers and partners to become certified.

Benefits of Marketo Certification
Digital credential that can be easily shared and linked to all your online profiles.
Globally recognized official designation and logo.
Stand out on the Marketo Certified Professional Locator
For Jobseekers: Ability to stand out on Marketo Career Connect.
Membership in the exclusive Marketo Certification LinkedIn group.

Understand the exam
Approximately 75 questions
Duration is 90 minutes
The Marketo Certified Expert exam's minimum passing score is 70%
Exams are scored based on the number of correct answers divided by the total number of questions
Exams are proctored by Kryterion at local testing centers or online
Before taking the exam, candidates must agree to the Marketo Certification Agreement

Ensure your success with the Marketo Certified Expert examTo increase your chances of success, Marketo recommends a combination of:
Foundational marketing automation knowledge
1 year of experience as a marketing automation professional
1-2 years of general marketing experience
1+ years (800-1000+ hours) hands-on experience using Marketo
Conceptual knowledge and understanding the business context of using marketing automation

Prepare for the exam
Review the Exam Topic List
Familiarize yourself with MCE Sample Questions
Check out Marketo University Learning Paths
Consider the Marketo MCE Prep Course
Check out the Additional Study Aid Resources

Pay for the exam
Each Marketo Certification exam costs $225 USD whether you’re taking it for the first time, retaking it because you didn’t pass the first time, or getting recertified.

Schedule an exam
Create an account and register to take the exam at Webassessor.

Get Recertified
The Marketo Certified Expert credential is valid for two years from issue date, after which time you need to take the exam again to be recertified.

Exam Objective
Program Fundamentals 30%
Targeting and Personalization 16%
Analytics and Reporting 16%
Lead Management 20%
Implementation and Operations 18%

Detailed Exam Topic List

Program Fundamentals
Given a scenario identify the program types and channels that are appropriate.
Identify the impact of adding custom tags to a program.
Identify how to set up programs to yield success metrics.
Given a scenario or screenshot of a channel, identify the program status transitions that are possible.
Given a scenario, identify when the recipient time zone feature can be used in a program and how it will affect members in the program.
Given a scenario, identify how to test emails using the email program A/B test and champion/challenger test.
Given a scenario about creating an engagement program, identify the settings that need to be in place for the first cast to go out.
Given a scenario about an engagement program with exhausted leads, identify what happens if additional content is added to the stream.
Given an engagement program, identify the relevance of adding, pausing, and removing people from the program.
Given an engagement program with multiple streams, identify how the streams and transition rules should be set up.
Identify the asset types that can be used in an engagement program.
Given a scenario using a webinar platform, identify the options for syncing registration and attendee data.
Identify how to send a webinar confirmation that includes the unique link to the webinar.
Given a scenario identify the proper configuration for the smart campaign.
Given a screen shot of a smart campaign identify the resulting impact on a particular person in the database.
Identify situations where the request campaign flow step should be used and the proper configuration for those situations.

Targeting and Personalization
Given a scenario about an email with tokens, identify the incorrect use of tokens.
Given a graphic showing a folder tree with a program and assets and folders under the assets, identify how the tokens will be inherited.
Identify the purpose of default values in tokens.
Identify valid local (my) token types.
Identify the difference between using segmentation and using multiple smart lists.
Identify the requirements for using dynamic content.

Analytics and Reporting
Identify the type of program dashboards available and the components of each.
Identify how to use different report customization options including custom columns, opportunity columns, smart lists.
Identify the settings available for different reports including timeframes, subscriptions, and export rows.
Given a scenario, identify when to use each of the following types of reports: people performance, people by revenue stage, people by status, email performance, email link performance, landing page performance, program performance, company web activity, web page activity, engagement stream performance, campaign activity, and campaign email performance.
Identify the requirements to accurately report on the success, acquisition, and ROI of marketing activities.

Lead Management
Identify the parties who should determine the criteria and values for scoring.
Identify the Marketo features that enable the understanding of the quality of the leads.
Given a scenario where Marketing has an SLA with Sales, identify the appropriate flow step setup.
Identify the Marketo features that enable sales to understand a lead's behavior.
Given a scenario of needing to reset a score, identify the appropriate value.
Given a scenario where a lead is deemed sales ready, identify the ways this can be communicated to sales.

Implementation and Operations
Identify a scenario when an unsubscribe link is not needed.
Identify the use of operational and nonoperational emails for event invitations, confirmations, and reminders.
Given a scenario about a form, identify how to determine the leads who filled out the form on a specific page.
Identify the differences between using a local vs. global landing pages.
Identify how to change the URL of a landing page.
Given a scenario with form visibility rules, identify how the form should be set up so dependent fields show up appropriately.
Identify the purpose and value of using progressive profiling.
Identify the purpose of hidden form fields and the means of populating those fields.
Identify how to display thank you pages using choices based on information collected on a form.
Given a scenario, where a company web page exists and a Marketo form needs to be deployed, identify the available options.
Identify the features of Marketo that are differentiated from an email service provider (ESP).
Given a scenario including receiving new leads, identify the ways in which acquisition can be assigned.
Identify the difference between hard and soft bounces.
Identify use cases for marketing suspend.
Given a scenario about an email need in which consistent repeatable content is required across all emails and maintained in a single location, identify the tools required.
Given a scenario about a requirements to limit the amount of email a lead receives, identify the appropriate settings.
Given a scenario including using tokens for scoring, identify the token that is the appropriate one.
Given a scenario of a company with international prospects, identify the sender's legal requirements for opting in and unsubscribing.
Identify the purpose of munchkin code.
Given a scenario about the need to display a value in a form and the requirement to input it into the database using a different value, identify the steps to complete this.
Identify the benefits of having both text and HTML email versions.
Given a scenario about having unstandardized data, identify the features that can be used to remedy this situation.

QUESTION 1
On a People Performance report, how is timeframe restricted?

A. Date of Activity
B. Both a and c
C. Sent Date
D. Created Date

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Kurt is creating a new program for an upcoming webinar initiative. He needs to ensure that every person who
fills out the registration form will receive a unique login URL via email. Which three steps must Kurt complete
in order to accomplish this? (Choose three.)

A. Add a new My Token to the program called {{my.webinar URL}}
B. Create a smart campaign using the Fills Out Form trigger
C. Create a smart campaign using the Send Alert flow step
D. Change the form settings to operational
E. Create an email that includes the {{member.webinar URL}} token
F. Change the email settings to operational
G. Create an email that includes the {{webinar.link URL}} token

Answer: B,E,F

QUESTION 3
The email marketing manager wants to reset the score for all leads who have been unengaged.
Which value in the CHANGE SCORE Flow Step will reset the leads’ score?

A. -100
B. {{System.Reset}}
C. Reset
D. = 0

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A marketing and sales organization agrees on a service level agreement for prospects who request demos
through Marketo landing pages. The marketing department is tasked with building a Smart Campaign that
sends an immediate auto-reply email to the prospect, and 30 minutes afterwards, sends an email notification to the lead owner.
What is the correct order in the Smart Campaign flow setup?

A. Send Alert > Wait 30 Minutes > Send Email
B. Send Email > Wait 30 Minutes > Send Alert
C. Send Alert > Wait 30 Minutes > Send Alert
D. Send Email > Wait 30 Minutes > Send Email

Answer: B
Click here to view complete Q&A of Marketo Certified Expert exam
Certkingdom Review, Certkingdom PDF

Best Marketo Certified Expert Certification, Marketo Certified Expert Training at certkingdom.com

CIMAPRO15-E03-X1-ENG E3 - Strategic Management Question Tutorial Exam

Strategic level
E3 builds on the insights gained from E1 and E2 about how organisations effectively implement their strategies by aligning their structures, people, process, projects and relationships. E3 aims to develop the skills and abilities of the strategic leaders of organisations, enabling them to create the vision and direction for the growth and long-term sustainable success of the organisation. This involves successfully managing and leading change within the process of strategy formulation and implementation.

Summary of syllabus
Each subject is divided into a number of broad syllabus topics.

A percentage weighting is shown against each syllabus topic and is intended as a guide to the proportion of study time each topic requires.

It is essential that all topics in the syllabus are studied, as all topics will be examined. The weightings do not specify the number of marks that will be allocated to topics in the examination.
Weight Syllabus topic
20% A. Interacting with the organisation’s environment
30% B. Evaluating strategic position and strategic options
20% C. Leading change
15% D. Implementing strategy
15% E. The role of information systems in organisational strategy

Assessment
Format: computer based Objective Test
Availability: on demand at any of the 5000 Pearson VUE centres around the world
Length: 90 minutes
Marking: computer marked
Results: provisional result available immediately followed by confirmation no more than 48 hours later

Further information
Objective Tests are comprised of a range of items including short multiple choice questions, number entry questions, drag and drop questions and other formats. They test all component learning outcomes across the whole subject.

A. The Strategy process
B. Analysing the organisational ecosystem
C. Generating strategic options
D. Making strategic choices
E. Strategic control
F. Digital strategy

What do you learn in E3?
• The foundation of strategic management and an understanding of the dynamics of the organisational ecosystem and how it affects the strategy of the organisation.
• Strategic choice and how options are generated, linking them to the purpose, values and vision of the organisation and how the options are evaluated, chosen and integrated coherently to form the strategy of the organisation.
• How strategy is implemented, how implementation objectives are achieved and how change is managed.
• What are the technologies that underpin digital transformation and various elements of digital strategy.

P3 Risk Management
A. Enterprise risk
B. Strategic risk
C. Internal controls
D. Cyber risk

What do you learn in P3?
• How to identify, evaluate and manage enterprise risks.
• Where strategic risks emanate from, how to evaluate them and understand how oversight of these risks is critical to the governance of the organisation.
• How internal controls can be used effectively in the risk management process and how to identify, analyse, remedy and report strategic risks including cyber risks.

F3 Financial Strategy
A. Financial policy decisions
B. Sources of long term funds
C. Financial risks
D. Business valuation

What do you learn in F3?
• The different strategic financial objectives and policy options that are open to organisations.
• The types of funds available to organisations to finance the implementation of their strategies, including where and how they access these funds at the right time, in the right quantities and at the right cost.
• The sources of financial risk, how to evaluate and manage financial risk appropriately, and techniques in business valuation to assess whether a company has created and preserved value within the organisation.
• The valuation techniques to calculate value of organisations and conditions applicable for such calculations especially intangibles in the digital world and how to report intangible value and their drivers in integrated reporting.

Strategic Level Case Study
Each level of the CIMA Professional Qualification culminates in a Case Study Examination, which integrates the knowledge, skills and techniques from across the three pillars into one synoptic capstone examination.

At the Strategic level, the role simulated is that of the senior finance manager. The Case Study Examination provides a simulated context which allows learners to demonstrate that they have acquired the required knowledge, skills, techniques and mindset for that role.

Further detail of the Management Case Study can be found in the Examination Blueprints

---

QUESTION 1
Which of the following categorizations would be correct, according to McFarlan's Strategic Grid, for a system
which is critical to sustaining existing business but its future strategic importance is considered to be low?

A. Turnaround
B. Support
C. Strategic
D. Factory

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
As a CIMA qualified management accountant working within a manufacturing company, you are subject to
both CIMA's Code of Ethics and your company's Code of Business Conduct.
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two.)

A. As a CIMA qualified Management Accountant you must follow CIMA's Code of Ethics.
B. Where there is a difference between CIMA's Code of Ethics and the company's Code of Business Conduct, the company's Code of Business Conduct takes priority.
C. Both CIMA's Code of Ethics and the company's Code of Business Conduct must be based on a set of basic principles.
D. Both CIMA's Code of Ethics and the company's Code of Business Conduct include references to Confidentiality. Disclosure on public interest grounds is therefore prohibited.
E. A company's Code of Business Conduct can be rules based.

Answer: D,E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

---

QUESTION 3
YZ operates a national mobile phone (cell phone) network in one country. It is considering upgrading its
network to 4th Generation (4G) by providing an improved bandwidth that will enable its customers faster access to the Internet.
This investment will cost S29 million which YZ's institutional investors have agreed to provide by subscribing to
a rights issue. This is due to management having informed institutional investors that a rival is already offering
4G and that this is taking customers away from YZ because its network is now regarded as too slow. YZ's
remaining customers have shown a willingness to pay extra for 4G and overall the investment will have a
positive net present value.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It provides a market development opportunity for YZ.
B. YZ will gain a first mover advantage.
C. There is stakeholder approval for the investment.
D. It is essential given the strategic threats to YZ.
E. There are sufficient investment funds available

Answer: C,D,E

---

QUESTION 4
Which THREE of the following frameworks are used solely to evaluate the external environment of an organization? (Choose three.)

A. Porter's Value Chain
B. Kaplan and Norton's Balanced Scorecard
C. PEST Analysis
D. Porter's Diamond
E. SWOT analysis
F. Porter's Five Forces Model

Answer: A,C,F

---

QUESTION 5
RRR is an insurance company which maintains an extensive database of its customer transactions over the
last 10 years. RRR is developing a new product and has carried out a SWOT analysis.
Within which of the following aspects of the SWOT analysis would RRR include its customer database?

A. Opportunity
B. Threat
C. Weakness
D. Strength

Answer: D
Click here to view complete Q&A of CIMAPRO15-E03-X1-ENG exam
Certkingdom Review, Certkingdom PDF

Best CIMA Certifications CIMAPRO15-E03-X1-ENG Certification, CIMA Certifications CIMAPRO15-E03-X1-ENG Training at certkingdom.com