PCNSE6 Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer 6

A Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer (PCNSE) is capable of designing, deploying, configuring, maintaining and trouble-shooting the vast majority of Palo Alto Networks Operating Platform implementations.

Benefits
PCNSE certification validates your knowledge of the Security Operating Platform, ensuring you can make use of its full functionality to benefit your company and showcase your expertise.

The Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Associate (PCCSA) possesses knowledge of cutting-edge technology available today to manage the cyber threats of tomorrow. The PCCSA certification should be pursued by students and individuals new to cybersecurity to validate up-to-date knowledge on cyber-threats and cyber-security.

The Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator (PCNSA) recognizes individuals with the knowledge to operate Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewalls to protect networks from cutting edge cyber threats.

The Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer (PCNSE) recognizes individuals with in-depth knowledge and abilities to design, install, configure, maintain and troubleshoot the vast majority of implementations based on the Palo Alto Networks platform. The PCNSE exam should be taken by anyone who wishes to demonstrate a deep understanding of Palo Alto Networks technologies, including customers who use Palo Alto Networks products, value-added resellers, pre-sales system engineers, system integrators, and support staff.

For detailed information on individual Certification requirements, please visit the Palo Alto Networks Certification web site.

New! Palo Alto Networks Launches Online Proctored Exams!

Your exam, your location
Here at Palo Alto Networks we know it’s tough studying for exams. We get it. So travelling to a testing center and scheduling appointments shouldn’t be. That’s why we are now offering Online Proctored (OP) Exams, allowing you to conveniently and easily take exams from anywhere.

We’re eliminating travel time and going the extra mile for you, so you can test from your home or office space at your convenience, while being monitored by an offsite proctor. Starting January 2019, Palo Alto Networks candidates will now have the option to take exams whenever or wherever desired. Learn more.

Palo Alto Networks Certification Exams Preparation
The exams are currently computer-based assessments of knowledge and skills. There are multiple choice, matching and ordering questions. As preparation for Palo Alto Networks Certification exams, recommended courses and/or study materials are available.

How To Register For An Exam
Exam appointments may be made in advance or on the day you wish to test, subject to availability. The exam/appointment testing time limit noted on Pearson VUE web pages reflects the total appointment time, including an NDA, exam time, and survey.

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Palo Alto Networks Certification Program Agreement
All certification candidates are required to accept and agree to the terms of the Palo Alto Networks Certification Candidate Agreement before taking a certification exam. Palo Alto Networks encourages candidates to download and carefully review the agreement before their exam appointment. The Agreement will not be available at the testing center. It will be provided with the exam confirmation email from Pearson VUE. The Agreement is between Palo Alto Networks and each individual candidate and not with the employer of those candidates.

The Palo Alto Networks Certification Candidate Agreement contains nondisclosure obligations, trademark license rights, termination rights, indemnification obligations, limitations of liability and other responsibilities.

Each time the candidate takes a Palo Alto Networks certification exam, they will be required to assent to the agreement by clicking “Accept”. By clicking “Accept” they acknowledge they have read, accept, and agree to be bound by the terms of the agreement. Read the agreement.

Certification Exam Retake Policy
In the event a candidate fails their first attempt to pass any Palo Alto Networks certification exam, Palo Alto Networks requires the candidate to wait five business days. If a candidate fails their second attempt Palo Alto Networks requires the candidate to wait 15 business days before than can attempt to pass the exam again. After the third attempt a candidate will be required to wait an additional 15 business days prior to attempting to pass the exam again. If the candidate is unsuccessful after the third attempt, candidate will need to contact certification@paloaltonetworks.com prior to any additional attempts.
Exam Rescheduling and Cancellation Policies

If candidate needs to reschedule or cancel their exam the must contact Pearson VUE 48 hours prior to the exam appointment. Rescheduling an exam less than 48 hours in advance is subject to the same day forfeit of exam fee. Exams scheduled with ADA accommodations need to reschedule or cancel their exam 72 hours in advance or will be subject to the same day forfeit exam fee.

ID Requirements

Photo Capture and Digital Signature Requirements
To maintain the highest level of security and authentication, all Palo Alto Networks score reports provided at Pearson VUE testing center will include a photo of the candidate. Test Center Administrators are required to take a photograph of each candidate prior to testing. Candidates who do not wish to have their picture taken will need to contact certification@paloaltonetworks.com 14 business days in advance of the exam.

Testing Center Administrators will also capture Digital Signatures during the sign in process at the testing centers.

QUESTION 1
Configuring a pair of devices into an Active/Active HA pair provides support for:

A. Higher session count
B. Redundant Virtual Routers
C. Asymmetric routing environments
D. Lower fail-over times

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
As a Palo Alto Networks firewall administrator, you have made unwanted changes to the Candidate configuration. These changes may be undone by Device > Setup > Operations
>
Configuration Management>....and then what operation?

A. Revert to Running Configuration
B. Revert to last Saved Configuration
C. Load Configuration Version
D. Import Named Configuration Snapshot

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 3
Wildfire may be used for identifying which of the following types of traffic?

A. URL content
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. Viruses

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
In PAN-OS 5.0, how is Wildfire enabled?

A. Via the "Forward" and "Continue and Forward" File-Blocking actions
B. A custom file blocking action must be enabled for all PDF and PE type files
C. Wildfire is automatically enabled with a valid URL-Filtering license
D. Via the URL-Filtering "Continue" Action.

Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Administrative Alarms can be enabled for which of the following except?

A. Certificate Expirations
B. Security Violation Thresholds
C. Security Policy Tags
D. Traffic Log capacity

Answer: A
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C1000-042 IBM Certified Support Professional - TSS

Number of questions: 100
Number of questions to pass: 80
Time allowed: 120 mins
Status: Live

The TSS Academy is available to IBM Business Partners and IBM employees that are, or plan to be part of the IBM Technology Support Services Business.

This test is designed to validate the understanding of the modules presented in the TSS Academy (www.tssacademy.biz)

This test consist of one section that covers all knowledge areas presented in the TSS Academy.

To prepare for the test follow the link to the TSS Academy: www.tssacademy.biz

It is highly recommended to complete all mandatory modules and earn the TSS Academy Graduate Badge prior to this test. (https://www.youracclaim.com/org/ibm/badge/tss-academy-graduate)

The TSS Academy is available to IBM Business Partners and IBM employees that are, or plan to be part of the IBM Technology Support Services Business.

To prepare for the test follow the link to the TSS Academy: www.tssacademy.biz

In the TSS Academy you will be able to learn everything you need to pass this Test. There is an option "Preparing for a certificate" where you can practice a full test.

It is highly recommended to complete all mandatory modules and earn the TSS Academy Graduate Badge prior to this test. (https://www.youracclaim.com/org/ibm/badge/tss-academy-graduate)
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Exam MB-400 Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Developer

The content of this exam will be updated on May 22, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.

Candidates for this exam are Developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations.

Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on data.

Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI.

Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on May 22, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
Create a technical design (10-15%)
Configure Common Data Service (CDS) (15-20%)
Create and configure Power Apps (10-15%)
Configure business process automation (10-15%)
Extend the user experience (15-20%)
Extend the platform (15-20%)
Develop integrations (10-15%)

Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations. Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on data. Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI. Skills Measured

NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Create a Technical Design (10-15%)
Validate requirements and design technical architecture
 design and validate technical architecture
 design authentication and authorization strategy
 determine whether requirements can be met with out-of-the-box functionality
 determine when to use Logic Apps versus Microsoft Flow
 determine when to use serverless computing vs. plug-ins
 determine when to build a virtual entity data source provider vs. when to use connectors Create a data model
 design a data model Configure Common Data Service (CDS) (

15-20%) Configure security to support development
 troubleshoot operational security issues
 create or update security roles and field-level security profiles Implement entities and fields
 configure entities
 configure fields
 configure relationships Create and maintain solutions
 configure solutions
 import and export solutions
 manage solution dependencies Create and Configure Power Apps

(10-15%) Create model-driven apps
 configure a model-driven app
 configure forms
 configure views
 configure visualizations Create Canvas Apps
 configure a Canvas App
 develop complex expressions Configure business process automation

(10-15%) Configure Microsoft Flow
 configure a Flow
 configure actions to use CDS connectors
 develop complex expressions Implement processes
 create and configure business process flows
 create and configure business rules

Extend the user experience

(15-20%) Apply business logic using client scripting
 configure supporting components
 create JavaScript or Typescript code
 register an event handler
 use the Web API from client scripting

Create a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) component
 initialize a new PCF component
 configure a PCF component manifest
 implement the component interfaces
 package, deploy, and consume the component
 use Web API device capabilities and other component framework services

Create a command button function
 create the command function
 design command button triggers, rules, and actions
 edit the command bar using the Ribbon Workbench
 modify the form JavaScript library dependencies

Extend the platform (15-20%)

Create a plug-in
 debug and troubleshoot a plug-in
 develop a plug-in
 use the Organization Service
 optimize plug-ins for performance
 register custom assemblies by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 create custom actions

Configure custom connectors for Power Apps and Flow
 create a definition for the API
 configure API security
 use policy templates

Use platform APIs
 interact with data and processes using the Web API
 optimize for performance, concurrency, transactions, and batching
 perform discovery using the Web API
 perform entity metadata operations with the Web API
 use OAuth with the platform APIs

Develop Integrations (10-15%)
Publish and consume events
 publish an event by using the API
 publish an event by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 register a webhook
 create an Azure event listener application

Implement data synchronization
 configure and use entity change tracking
 configure the data export service to integrate with Azure SQL Database
 create and use alternate keys

The exam guide below shows the changes that will be implemented on May 22, 2020. Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations. Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on data. Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI.

Skills Measured NOTE:
The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do
NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability). Create a Technical Design

(10-15%) Validate requirements and design technical architecture
 design and validate technical architecture
 design authentication and authorization strategy
 determine whether requirements can be met with out-of-the-box functionality
 determine when to use Logic Apps versus Microsoft FlowPower Automate flows
 determine when to use serverless computing vs. plug-ins
 determine when to build a virtual entity data source provider vs. when to use connectors Create a data model
 design a data model Configure Common Data Service (CDS)

(15-20%) Configure security to support development
 troubleshoot operational security issues
 create or update security roles and field-level security profiles Implement entities and fields
 configure entities
 configure fields
 configure relationships Create and maintain solutions
 configure solutions
 import and export solutions
 manage solution dependencies Create and Configure Power Apps

(10-15%) Create model-driven apps
 configure a model-driven app
 configure forms
 configure views
 configure visualizations Create Canvas Apps
 configure a Canvas App
 develop complex expressions Configure business process automation

(10-15%) Configure Microsoft FlowPower Automate
 configure a Flow
 configure actions to use CDS Common Data Service connectors
 develop complex expressions Implement processes
 create and configure business process flows
 create and configure business rules

Extend the user experience (15-20%)
Apply business logic using client scripting
 configure supporting components
 create JavaScript or Typescript code
 register an event handler
 use the Web API from client scripting

Create a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) component
 initialize a new PCF component
 configure a PCF component manifest
 implement the component interfaces
 package, deploy, and consume the component
 use Web API device capabilities and other component framework services

Create a command button function
 create the command function
 design command button triggers, rules, and actions
 edit the command bar using the Ribbon Workbench
 modify the form JavaScript library dependencies

Extend the platform (15-20%)
Create a plug-in
 debug and troubleshoot a plug-in
 develop a plug-in
 use the Organization Service global Discovery Service endpoint
 optimize plug-ins for performance
 register custom assemblies by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 create custom actions

Configure custom connectors for Power Apps and Flow
 create a definition for the API
 configure API security
 use policy templates

Use platform APIs
 interact with data and processes using the Web API
 optimize for performance, concurrency, transactions, and batching
 perform discovery using the Web API
 perform entity metadata operations with the Web API
 use OAuth with the platform APIs

Develop Integrations (10-15%)
Publish and consume events
 publish an event by using the API
 publish an event by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 register a webhook
 create an Azure event listener application

Implement data synchronization
 configure and use entity change tracking
 configure the data export service to integrate with Azure SQL Database
 create and use alternate keys

QUESTION 1
You need to replace the bicycle inspection forms.
Which two solutions should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a canvas app that guides the technician through the inspection
B. a logic app that guides the technician through the inspection
C. a flow that maps inspection data to Dynamics 365 for Field Service
D. a model-driven app based on customer service entities

Correct Answer: C,D


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.

A Common Data Service (CDS) environment has two custom entities named Building code and Work item.
Building code has a code date custom field and Work item has an elapsed time custom field. Construction
workers use a consolidated custom form with data from both entities to fill.in their daily work items.
A JavaScript library is used with these custom entities and fields to apply complex logic.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript library continues to function as originally designed if other developers
expand the environment.
Solution: In form properties of the consolidated form, add the JavaScript library in the events tab and add the
two custom fields to the dependent fields section of the non-event dependencies tab.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.

A Common Data Service (CDS) environment has two custom entities named Building code and Work item.
Building code has a code date custom field and Work item has an elapsed time custom field. Construction
workers use a consolidated custom form with data from both entities to fill.in their daily work items.
A JavaScript library is used with these custom entities and fields to apply complex logic.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript library continues to function as originally designed if other developers
expand the environment.
Solution: In the JavaScript library, add Building code with Code date and Work item with Elapsed time in the dependencies tab.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A
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AZ-220 Microsoft Azure IoT Developer Exam

The Azure IoT Developer is responsible for the implementation and the coding required to create and maintain the cloud and edge portion of an IoT solution. In addition to configuring and maintaining the devices by using cloud services, the IoT Developer also sets up the physical devices. The IoT Developer is responsible for maintaining the devices throughout the life cycle.

The IoT Developer implements designs for IoT solutions, including device topology, connectivity, debugging and security. The IoT Developer deploys compute/containers and configures device networking. The IoT Developer implements designs for solutions to manage data pipelines, including monitoring and data transformation as it relates to IoT. The IoT Developer works with data engineers and other stakeholders to ensure successful business integration.

IoT Developers should have a good understanding of how to implement the Azure services that form an IoT solution, including data storage options, data analysis, data processing, and platform-as-a-service options. IoT Developers must be able to recognize Azure IoT service configuration settings within the code portion of an IoT solution and perform specific IoT coding tasks in at least one Azure-supported language, including C#, Node, C, or Python.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty

Related exams: none
Exam AZ-220: Microsoft Azure IoT Developer
Languages: English
This exam measures your ability to implement the IoT solution infrastructure; provision and manage devices; implement solutions on Azure IoT Edge devices; process and manage data; monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions; and implement security.

Skills measured
Implement the IoT solution infrastructure (15-20%)
Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement Edge (15-20%)
Process and manage data (15-20%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)

Implement security (15-20%)

create an IoT Hub
 register a device
 configure a device twin
 configure IoT Hub tier and scaling

Build device messaging and communication
 build messaging solutions by using SDKs (device and service)
 implement device-to-cloud communication
 implement cloud-to-device communication
 configure file upload for devices

Configure physical IoT devices
 recommend an appropriate protocol based on device specifications
 configure device networking, topology, and connectivity

Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement the Device Provisioning Service (DPS)
 create a Device Provisioning Service
 create a new enrollment in DPS
 manage allocation policies by using Azure Functions
 link an IoT Hub to the DPS

Manage the device lifecycle
 provision a device by using DPS
 deprovision an autoenrollment
 decommission (disenroll) a device

Manage IoT devices by using IoT Hub
 manage devices list in the IoT Hub device registry
 modify device twin tags and properties
 trigger an action on a set of devices by using IoT Hub Jobs and Direct Methods
 set up Automatic Device Management of IoT devices at scale

Build a solution by using IoT Central
 define a device type in Azure IoT Central
 configure rules and actions in Azure IoT Central
 define the operator view
 add and manage devices from IoT Central
 monitor devices

Implement Edge (15-20%)

Set up and deploy an IoT Edge device
 create a device identity in IoT Hub
 deploy a single IoT device to IoT Edge
 create a deployment for IoT Edge devices
 install container runtime on IoT devices
 define and implement deployment manifest
 update security daemon and runtime

Develop modules
 create and configure an Edge module
 deploy a module to an Edge device
 publish an IoT Edge module to an Azure Container Registry

Configure an IoT Edge device
 select and deploy an appropriate gateway pattern
 implement module-to-module communication
 implement and configure offline support

Process and manage data (15-20%)

Configure routing in Azure IoT Hub
 implement message enrichment in IoT Hub
 configure routing of IoT Device messages to endpoints
 define and test routing queries
 integrate with Event Grid

Configure stream processing
 create ASA for data and stream processing of IoT data
 process and filter IoT data by using Azure Functions
 configure Stream Analytics outputs

Configure an IoT solution for Time Series Insights (TSI)
 implement solutions to handle telemetry and time-stamped data
 create an Azure Time Series Insights (TSI) environment
 connect the IoT Hub and the Time Series Insights (TSI)

Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)

Configure health monitoring
 configure metrics in IoT Hub
 set up diagnostics logs for Azure IoT Hub
 query and visualize tracing by using Azure monitor

Troubleshoot device communication
 establish maintenance communication
 verify device telemetry is received by IoT Hub
 validate device twin properties, tags and direct methods
 troubleshoot device disconnects and connects

Perform end-to-end solution testing and diagnostics
 estimate the capacity required for each service in the solution
 conduct performance and stress testing
 set up device D2C message tracing by using Azure Distributed Tracing

Implement security (15-20%)

Implement device authentication in the IoT Hub
 choose an appropriate form of authentication
 manage the X.509 certificates for a device
 manage the symmetric keys for a device

Implement device security by using DPS
 configure different attestation mechanisms with DPS
 generate and manage x.509 certificates for IoT Devices
 configure enrollment with x.509 certificates
 generate a TPM endorsements key for a device
 configure enrollment with symmetric keys

Implement Azure Security Center (ASC) for IoT
 enable ASC for IoT in Azure IoT Hub
 create security modules
 configure custom alerts

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment group, and you disable device
entries in the identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are provisioned.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and
1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: You delete the enrollment group from the Device Provisioning Service.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and
1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access policy of the IoT devices.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
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1z0-083 Oracle Database Administration II Exam

Oracle Database Administration II | 1Z0-083
An Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional has proven theoretical understanding of and the practical skills required to configure and manage Oracle Databases up to and including Oracle 19c. Passing this 2nd exam in a 2 exam path proves your skills in: installation, upgrades, patching, SQL programming skills, database and network administration and backup and recovery. This person also demonstrates fluency with some advanced skills such as multi-tenant, SQL performance monitoring and problem determination.

Audience:
Production Database Administrators (DBAs)
Development DBAs
DB Architects
DB designers and analysts.

Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-083
Exam Price: Rs.22,584 More on exam pricing
Format:  Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 85
Passing Score: 57%
Validated Against:

Associated Certification Paths

Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional
Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional (Upgrade from 10g,11g, 12c, 12cR2 OCP)

Review Exam Topics
Creating CDBs and Regular PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1

Configure and create a CDB
Create a new PDB from the CDB seed
Explore the structure of PDBs

Backup and Duplicate - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1
Perform Backup and Recover CDBs and PDBs
Duplicate an active PDB
Duplicate a Database

Manage Application PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1
Explain the purpose of application root and application seed
Define and create application PDBs
Install, upgrade and Patch applications
Create and administer Application PDBS
Clone PDBs and Application containers
Plug and unplug operations with PDBs and application containers
Comparing Local Undo Mode and Shared Undo Mode

Recovery and Flashback - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1
Restore and Recovering Databases with RMAN
Perform CDB and PDB flashback

Backup Strategies and Terminology - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Perform Full and Incremental Backups and Recoveries
Compress and Encrypt RMAN Backups
Use a media manager
Create multi-section backups of very large files
Create duplexed backup sets
Create archival backups
Backup of recovery files
Backup non database files
Back up ASM meta data

Restore and Recovery Concepts - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Employ the best Oracle Database recovery technology for your failure situation
Describe and use Recovery technology for Crash, Complete, and Point-in-time recovry

Using Flashback Technologies - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Configure your Database to support Flashback
Perform flashback operations

Duplicating a Database - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Duplicate Databases

Diagnosing Failures - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Detect and repair database and database block corruption
Diagnosing Database Issues

Transporting Data - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Transport Data

Install Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Install Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone server
Install Oracle Database software

Patching Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Patch Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database

Upgrading to Oracle Grid Infrastructure - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Upgrade Oracle Grid Infrastructure

Oracle Database 18c: New Features - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Image and RPM based Database Installation

Oracle Restart - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Configure and use Oracle Restart to manage components

Install Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone server - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Rapid Home Provisioning

Using Availability Enhancements - Oracle Database 19c: New Features for Administrators
Use an RMAN recovery catalog
Use Flashback Database

Monitoring and Tuning Database Performance - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Managing Memory Components
Understanding The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
Understanding The Advisory Framework
Monitoring Wait Events, Sessions, and Services
Managing Metric Thresholds and Alerts
Understanding and Using The Performance Tuning Methodology
Performing Performance Planning
Understanding The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)

Manage CDBs and PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1
Manage PDB service names and connections
Manage startup, shutdown and availability of CDBs and PDBs
Change the different modes and settings of PDBs
Evaluate the impact of parameter value changes
Performance management in CDBs and PDBs
Control CDB and PDB resource usage with the Oracle Resource Manager

Upgrading and Transporting CDBs and Regular PDBs - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1
Upgrade an Oracle Database
Transport Data

Manage Security in Multitenant databases - Oracle Database: Managing Multitenant Architecture Ed 1
Manage Security in Multitenant databases
Manage PDB lockdown profiles
Audit Users in CDBs and PDBs
Manage other types of policies in application containers

Configuring and Using RMAN - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Configure RMAN and the Database for Recoverability
Configureand Using an RMAN recovery catalog

Performing Recovery - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Restore and Recovering Databases with RMAN
Perform Non RMAN database recovery

RMAN Troubleshooting and Tuning - Oracle Database: Backup and Recovery Workshop
Interpret the RMAN message output
Diagnose RMAN performance issues

Creating an Oracle Database by using DBCA - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Create, Delete and Configure Databases using DBCA

Upgrade the Oracle Database - Oracle Database: Deploy, Patch and Upgrade Workshop
Plan for Upgrading an Oracle Database
Upgrade an Oracle Database
Perform Post-Upgrade tasks

Using General Overall Database Enhancements - Oracle Database 19c: New Features for Administrators
Install Oracle Database software
Create, Delete and Configure Databases using DBCA
Creating CDBs and Regular PDBs
Use Miscellaneaous 19c New Features

Using Diagnosibility Enhancements - Oracle Database 19c: New Features for Administrators
Use new Diagnoseability Features

Tuning SQL Statements - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding The Oracle Optimizer
Using The SQL Tuning Advisor
Managing Optimizer Statistics
Using The SQL Access Advisor
Understanding The SQL Tuning Process

QUESTION 1
Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

A. All metrics are instance related.
B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.
D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.
E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.
F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

Correct Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION 2
While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck.
FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.
Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.
B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.
D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.

Correct Answer: C,E

QUESTION 3
For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.
B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB
C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB
D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB
E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB
F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

Correct Answer: E,F


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300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) Exam

Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English, Japanese

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and services, including:

Layer 3
VPN services
Infrastructure security
Infrastructure services
Infrastructure automation

What you’ll learn in this course
The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) v1.0 gives you the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot an enterprise network. This course covers advanced routing and infrastructure technologies, expanding on the topics covered in the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0 course.

This course helps prepare you to take the exam, Implementing Cisco® Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI), which leads to the new CCNP® Enterprise and Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure Implementation certifications. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.

Course duration
Instructor-led training: 5 days with hands-on lab practice
Virtual instructor-led training: 5 days of web-based classes with hands-on lab practice
E-learning: Equivalent of 5 days of instruction with hands-on lab practice

How you'll benefit

This course will help you:
Gain the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot an enterprise network
Qualify for professional-level job roles in advance routing and services
Prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam, which will be available beginning February 24, 2020

What to expect in the exam
This course will help you prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam. This exam tests your knowledge of implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and services. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.

After you pass 300-410 ENARSI:
You earn the Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure Implementation certification.
You satisfy the concentration requirement for the new CCNP Enterprise certification. To complete your CCNP Enterprise certification, pass the Enterprise core exam, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR).

Who should enroll
Enterprise network engineers
System engineers
System administrators
Network administrators

Technology areas
Enterprise networking
Routing and switching

Course details
Objectives

After taking this course, you should be able to:
Configure classic Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Optimize classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Configure Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)v2 and OSPFv3 in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Optimize OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 behavior
Troubleshoot OSPFv2 for IPv4 and OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Implement route redistribution using filtering mechanisms
Troubleshoot redistribution
Implement path control using Policy-Based Routing (PBR) and IP service level agreement (SLA)
Configure Multiprotocol-Border Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP) in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Optimize MP-BGP in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Troubleshoot MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Describe the features of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Describe the major architectural components of an MPLS VPN
Identify the routing and packet forwarding functionalities for MPLS VPNs
Explain how packets are forwarded in an MPLS VPN environment
Implement Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS®) Dynamic Multipoint VPNs (DMVPNs)
Implement Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Describe the tools available to secure the IPV6 first hop
Troubleshoot Cisco router security features
Troubleshoot infrastructure security and services

Before taking this course, you should have:
General understanding of network fundamentals
Basic knowledge of how to implement LANs
General understanding of how to manage network devices
General understanding of how to secure network devices
Basic knowledge of network automation

These Cisco courses are recommended to help you meet these prerequisites:
Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 1 (ICND1) v3.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 2 (ICND2) v3.0

Outline
Implementing EIGRP
Optimizing EIGRP
Troubleshooting EIGRP
Implementing OSPF
Optimizing OSPF
Troubleshooting OSPF
Implementing Internal Border Gateway Protocol (IBGP)
Optimizing BGP
Implementing MP-BGP
Troubleshooting BGP
Configuring Redistribution
Troubleshooting Redistribution
Implementing Path Control
Exploring MPLS
Introducing MPLS L3 VPN Architecture
Introducing MPLS L3 VPN Routing
Configuring Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)-Lite
Implementing DMVPN
Implementing DHCP
Troubleshooting DHCP
Introducing IPv6 First Hop Security
Securing Cisco Routers
Troubleshooting Infrastructure Security and Services

Lab Outline
Configure EIGRP Using Classic Mode and Named Mode for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the EIGRP Topology Table
Configure EIGRP Stub Routing, Summarization, and Default Routing
Configure EIGRP Load Balancing and Authentication
LAB: Troubleshoot EIGRP Issues
Configure OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the Link-State Database
Configure OSPF Stub Areas and Summarization
Configure OSPF Authentication
Troubleshoot OSPF
Implement Routing Protocol Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution Using Route Maps
Troubleshoot Redistribution Issues
Implement PBR
Configure IBGP and External Border Gateway Protocol (EBGP)
Implement BGP Path Selection
Configure BGP Advanced Features
Configure BGP Route Reflectors
Configure MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot BGP Issues
Implement PBR
Configure Routing with VRF-Lite
Implement Cisco IOS DMVPN
Obtain IPv6 Addresses Dynamically
Troubleshoot DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 Issues
Troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6 Access Control List (ACL) Issues
Configure and Verify Control Plane Policing
Configure and Verify Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF)
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 1
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 2

QUESTION 1
Automatic 6-to-4 tunnels exist between dual-stack routers (A, B, and C). One router has the IPv6 address,
Which of the following addresses is the IPv4 address of the router with the IPv6 address

A. 10.176.15.131
B. 10.200.80.67
C. 208.48.107.192
D. 208.138.16.110

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is 208.48.107.192. In an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel, IPv6 addresses have the
2002::/16 prefix. The 32-bit IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is then embedded into the IPv6 address. The 32
bits of the IPv4 address is embedded in the second and third quartet of the IPv6 address. The second and
third quarters in the IPv6 address correspond to D030:6BC0. The conversion of these hexadecimal digits into
decimal is given as follows:
The IPv6 router does not have 10.176.15.131 as its IPv4 address. The 10.176.15.131 address is the IPv4
equivalent of the second and third quarter (05B0:0F81) in the source IPv6 address.
The other two IPv4 addresses are incorrect as they pertain to neither of the two IPv6 hosts.
Objective:
Network Principles
Sub-Objective:
Recognize proposed changes to the network
References:
Cisco IOS IPv6 Implementation Guide > Implementing Tunneling for IPv6

QUESTION 2
You have recently joined a company as the network administrator. You have been asked to complete the
configuration on the border routers for an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel between several IPv6 network domains. The
commands that are currently configured on the routers are as follows:
ipv6 route tunnel
interface tunnel
ipv6 address
tunnel source
Which of the following additional commands is required to complete the configuration of automatic 6-to-4 tunnel on the border routers?

A. tunnel mode ipv6ip
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel
D. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An automatic IPv4-compatible IPv6 tunnel exists between two IPv6 networks. The two IPv6 networks belong to
different BGP autonomous systems (AS). The tunnel source has the IPv4 address 172.168.111.65/24 and the
tunnel destination has the IPv4 address 172.168.222.80/24.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the tunnel source and tunnel destination IPv6 addresses?
(Choose two.)

A. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is 172.168.111.65::
B. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is ::172.168.111.65
C. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is 172.168.222.80::
D. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is ::172.168.222.80

Correct Answer: BD

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ServiceNow-CSA ServiceNow Certified System Administrator Exam

Summary
Passing the ServiceNow System Administrator Certification Exam demonstrates mastery of ServiceNow System Administration and certifies that a candidate has the skills and essential knowledge necessary to manage the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow platform.

Successfully passing this certification exam also establishes the core skill set necessary to pursue further certification for individuals.

Prerequisites
Candidates can complete either a three‑day ServiceNow Fundamentals training course or the on‑demand ServiceNow Fundamentals training course offered in Now Learning.

To be successful on this exam, candidates should have attended the ServiceNow Fundamentals class and have at least six months of hands‑on experience with ServiceNow.

Industry experience with database concepts and system management, as well as knowledge of IT Help Desk processes and the incident, problem, and change workflows is also helpful.

To prepare for the exam, please download the exam blueprint and review what will be covered.

Prior to completing registration, attendees will be required to review and accept an End User Agreement.

Exam Registration and Scheduling
ServiceNow Certification exams are computer‑based, multiple‑choice exams delivered by ServiceNow testing partner Kryterion, in a proctored environment. Online proctoring is also available.

Appointments may be made in advance or on the actual test day, subject to availability. Please visit WebAssessor to register and sign up for the exam.

Online Proctoring Requirements
Attendees who would like to review the requirements, including the need for a standalone webcam (one that is NOT integrated to a computer/laptop), please visit the WebAssessor download page.

Attendees must also use a Windows‑based PC and Internet Explorer or Google Chrome.

To prepare for the exam, please download the exam blueprint and review what will be covered.

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified System Administrator Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.

Exam Purpose
The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification demonstrates that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow system.
Successfully passing this Certification exam also establishes a set of skills necessary to continue in the ServiceNow Certification paths. It is a prerequisite for advanced courses.

Exam Audience
The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, sales engineers, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination.

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course in preparation for the Certified System Administrator exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course contains source material for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals or ServiceNow Fundamentals (on demand) *Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for the Certified System Administrator exam.

Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• Certified System Administrator (CSA): Certification Test Prep

Additional Recommended Experience
• Industry experience with database concepts and system management.
• System administrator role and/or access to ServiceNow administrative applications and modules.
• Some knowledge of IT Help Desk processes and the incident, problem, and change workflows is also helpful.
• Three (3) to six (6) months experience using and/or maintaining a ServiceNow instance.
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.

The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content. Learning Domain % of Exam 1 User Interface & Navigation ServiceNow Overview Lists and Filters Forms and Templates Branding 20%

2 Collaboration User Administration Task Management Notifications Reporting
20% 3 Database Administration Data Schema CMDB Application/Access Control Import Sets 30%

4 Self-Service & Process Automation Knowledge Management Service Catalog 20%

Workflows/Flow Designer 5 Intro to Scripting & Application Tools Scripting Migration and Integration Development 10%

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the ServiceNow Fundamentals training prerequisite.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.

Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately (60) questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response which most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)

For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again up to three more times for a cost of $150.

QUESTION 1
A Service Catalog may include which of the following components?

A. Order Guides, Exchange Rates, Calendars
B. Order Guides, Catalog Items, and Interceptors
C. Catalog Items, Asset Contracts, Task Surveys
D. Record Producers, Order Guides, and Catalog Items

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which one of the following statements applies to a set of fields when they are coalesced during an import?

A. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated with the information being imported
B. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the system does not create a Transform Map
C. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the system creates a new record
D. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated with the information being imported

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
As it relates to ServiceNow reporting, which of the following statements describes what a metric can do?

A. A metric is a report gauge used on homepages to display real-time data
B. A metric is a time measurement used to report the effectiveness of workflows and SLAs
C. A metric is used to measure and evaluate the effectiveness of IT service management processes
D. A metric is a comparative measurement used to report the effectiveness of flows and SLAs.

Correct Answer: C

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PSM-II Professional Scrum Master level II (PSM II) Exam

Details
Fee: $250 USD
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 30 (partial credit provide on some questions)
Difficulty: Advanced
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer and True/False
Language: English only

PSM II Subject Areas
The Scrum Guide and The Nexus Guide
Ways to Learn More to help you prepare
Required course: None
Recommended courses: Professional Scrum Master and Professional Scrum Master II
Recommended Certification: PSM I
Practice assessments: PSM I, PSPO I, PSD I, Scrum Open
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only

Prove Your Advanced Knowledge of Scrum
The Professional Scrum MasterTM level II (PSM II) assessment is available to anyone who wishes to demonstrate his or her ability to apply the Scrum framework to solving advanced, complex problems in the real world. Those that pass the assessment will receive the industry recognized PSM II Certification as an indication of their advanced knowledge and abilities pertaining to Scrum and the role of the Scrum Master.

Anyone attempting the PSM II should have advanced Scrum knowledge, in-depth Scrum experience and/or have taken the Professional Scrum Master course prior to taking this assessment. However, attending a course is neither necessary nor sufficient for certification. The PSM II assessment is very difficult, and consists of multiple-choice questions based on your knowledge of Scrum and how you would handle real-world situations.

Prepare for the Assessment
The assessment is exhaustive and rigorous. Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum Guide, apply content from the PSM II subject areas, as well as application of your own experience.

Reading the Scrum Guide and taking the Open Assessments alone isn't enough preparation and we recommend reviewing the content below:

The assessment covers topics from multiple Focus Areas defined by the Professional Scrum Competencies and detailed on the PSM II Suggested Reading page. Questions will be selected at random from the
Focus Areas listed.

Many questions ask you to think about or interpret the meaning from the Scrum Guide and how you would apply Scrum within a Scrum Team.
The Scrum Master learning path contains many additional resources to help you prepare to take the PSM II Assessment.
Since this is an advanced Scrum Master certification, reading content from the Product Owner, Agile Leader, and Development Team Member learning paths may also be helpful.

Attending the 2-day Professional Scrum Master II course is highly recommended. Find additional information to help you prepare for the PSM Assessment and ways to learn about Scrum.

To protect the integrity of the certification process, Scrum.org does not share information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or incorrectly. Learn More

Search the list of existing Professional Scrum certification holders here or see a breakdown on how many people hold certifications.

The cost of PSM II is $250 USD. Assessment passwords do not expire and remain valid until used. See more details below.

When you purchase a password, it is set up in our system and emailed to you within one business day.

Certification
If you pass the PSM II assessment you will receive the industry-recognized "PSM II" certification, along with a PSM II logo that you can use to identify your achievement. In addition, your name will be listed on Scrum.org.

Unlike other Scrum certifications that require only class attendance, Scrum.org certification requires a minimum score on an online assessment. This gives Scrum.org certification teeth and ensures that it has true value in the marketplace.

Search the list of Professional Scrum Certificate Holders

QUESTION 1
A Scrum Master is not only a servant-leader to the Scrum Team and organization, it’s also considered a management position.
Which three activities describe what a Scrum Master manages as reflected by the Scrum Guide? (Choose three.)

A. Reporting on the performance of the Sprint.
B. The way Scrum is understood and enacted within the organization.
C. Managing the capacity and utilization of each Development Team member.
D. Managing the process in which Scrum is applied.
E. Managing the Product Backlog items and work in the Sprint Backlog.
F. Removing organizational impediments that limits the team’s progress and productivity.

Correct Answer: B,D,F

QUESTION 2
An organization has just hired you as a new Scrum Master to help them transition their teams from their
current traditional process to Scrum. The teams are currently structured to specialize in a single function. This
is also known as component teams where a team would only address a single layer (i.e. design, frontend,
backend, database, testing, etc.). You’ve introduced the concept of cross-functional teams where all the skills
needed to produce business functionality, from end to end, are inside of a single team.
What should you keep in mind when transitioning from siloed teams to cross-functional teams? (Choose two.)

A. It is easier to compare the performance between cross-functional teams in order to identify to which teams to assign tasks and which teams need additional coaching.
B. Newly formed teams will need time to stabilize before reaching their peak performance. During the initial stages of forming, performance will suffer and productivity may be low, although even then delivery of
business value is still likely to increase.
C. Without feature teams, you cannot do Scrum. Postpone Scrum adoption until the teams are reorganized in feature teams.
D. People from the different layers and components will need time to become accustomed to working and delivering unified functionality together as one Scrum Team thus productivity may suffer.

Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Paul is a Product Owner for multiple products. Each product is allocated a dedicated Scrum Team and a set
budget. Based on the average velocity of a previous product release, Paul had estimated a new product to
take 9 Sprints to complete. The average velocity of the previous product release was 50 completed units of
work per Sprint. Over the first 3 Sprints, the Development Team reported an average velocity of 40 completed
units per Sprint, while not fully completing the required integration tests. The Development Team estimates
that integration testing would require additional effort to make the increments shippable. The Development
Team is unsure if the required velocity is achievable.
What is the most effective way to recover?

A. In the next Sprints, the Development Team strives to make the selected work as close to ‘done’ as possible
and at the minimum 90% completed. Any undone work is divided into new Product Backlog Items that will
be deferred to the last Sprint in order to maintain stable velocity.

B. The Development Team informs Paul that the progress he has perceived to date is not correct. The
Increment is not releasable. They give Paul their estimate of the effort it would take to get the previous
work ‘done’, and suggest doing that work first before proceeding with new features. The team also reestimates
the effort to make the remaining Product Backlog items ‘done’, including all integration effort. In
the end, it is Paul’s call to continue the project or to cancel.

C. The Scrum Master will manage the Sprint Backlog and assign work to the Development Team members to
ensure maximum utilization of each member. He/she will keep track of unused resources so that it does not
impact the budget. Unused budget can be allocated for additional Sprints if needed.

D. The Scrum Master sets the open work aside to be performed in one or more release Sprints. They remind
Paul to find funding for enough Release Sprints in which this remaining work can be done. Up to one
release Sprint per three development Sprints may be required. It is Paul’s role to inform users and
stakeholders of the impact on the release date.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Paul, a Product Owner of one of the Scrum Teams, has been attending the Daily Scrum. During the Daily
Scrum, the Development Team members have been reporting their daily work to Paul so that he is aware of
their Sprint progress and what each member is working on.
What is the best action for the Scrum Master to take?

A. Ask Paul to stop attending the Daily Scrum.
B. Coach Paul and Development Team members on the purpose of the Scrum events and let them figure out what to do in this situation.
C. Allow the Paul to participate in the Daily Scrum as he is responsible for the success of the product.
D. Facilitate the Daily Scrums to avoid any conflicts between the Development Team members and Paul.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Steven, the Scrum Master, is approached by one of the Development Team members saying that they are not
completing regression tests for all of the work they are performing to the level defined in the Definition of Done.
They have discussed this with the Product Owner and decided to remove regression testing from the Definition of Done.
Which two actions are the most appropriate for Steven to take? (Choose two.)

A. Reject the decision as the long term maintainability of the product will be negatively impacted by modifying the Definition of Done.
B. Accept the decision as a mutual agreement has been made between the Development Team and the Product Owner.
C. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner what problem they are trying to solve by altering the Definition of Done and removing regression testing from it. In what ways will this decision impact
transparency and quality?
D. Ask the Development Team and the Product Owner if they are still able to produce potentially shippable product increments by altering the Definition of Done?

Correct Answer: C,D


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